CCIE R&S - Questions & Answers

T R B PREM KUMAR
Mar 21, 2019
220 min read

Updated: May 3, 2019

Table Of Contents [TOC]:

Network Fundamentals
Switching i.e. L2 Technologies
Routing i.e. L3 Technologies
Infrastructure Services
Infrastructure Security
Infrastructure Management
WAN i.e. Service Provider
Evolving Technologies

NETWORK FUNDAMENTALS:

OSI Model, TCP/IP Models, TCP/IP Protocol Suite, Enterprise Network Infrastructure Design i.e. 3/2 Tier, WLAN Controller, WAP, FW, IPS, VPN, Cloud, SDN, ... , Topology, Cable & Connectors, TSHOOT-Approach & Methods, Computer Addressing Format [Port Add, MAC, IPv4, IPv6], Class C/B/A Sub-netting, VLSM, IPv6 Basics

SWITCHING i.e. L2 Technologies:

NW Devices: Purpose & Functions, BD/CD Exercise, VLAN, Trunk, VTP, STP, PVSTP, RSTP, MSTP, L2/L3 Etherchannel, Inter-VLAN Routing - Routing on Stick & L3 Switching.

ROUTING i.e. L3 Technologies:

Types & Class, Static [NW, Host, Default & Floating Route], Dynamic[RIP, EIGRP, OSPF, BGP], IPv6 [Static, RIPng, EIGRP for IPv6, OSPFv3, BGP]

INFRA SERVICES :

ACL, NAT, DNS, DHCP, HSRP, NTP

INFRA SECURITY:

Terminologies, 802.1X, DHCP snooping, DHCP snooping, APIC-EM ACL Path Trace ACL Tool, Switch Port Security & AAA

INFRA MANAGEMENT:

SNMP, SYSLOG, TFTP, IPSLA, Router PSSWD Recovery, Tools:Ping, Traceroute, Terminal monitor, SPAN

WAN:

OSI Model, Physical, Protocol [HDLC, PPP [PAP, CHAP, MLPPP, PPPoE], QoS, NW Program-ability, VPN [GRE], eBGP

Exam Questions:

Topic 1, Operation of IP Data Networks

QUESTION NO: 1

Refer to the exhibit:

What will Router1 do when it receives the data frame shown? (Choose three.)

A. Router1 will strip off the source MAC address and replace it with the MAC address

0000.0c36.6965.

B. Router1 will strip off the source IP address and replace it with the IP address 192.168.40.1.

C. Router1 will strip off the destination MAC address and replace it with the MAC address

0000.0c07.4320.

D. Router1 will strip off the destination IP address and replace it with the IP address of

192.168.40.1.

E. Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/1.

F. Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/2.

Answer: A,C,F

Explanation:

Remember, the source and destination MAC changes as each router hop along with the TTL

being decremented but the source and destination IP address remain the same from source to destination.

QUESTION NO: 2

Refer to the exhibit.

Which three statements correctly describe Network Device A? (Choose three.)

A. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does not require an IP address.

B. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does require an IP address on a unique IP subnet.

C. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 2 device for the PCs to

communicate with each other.

D. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 3 device for the PCs to

communicate with each other.

E. With a network wide mask of 255.255.254.0, each interface does not require an IP address.

Answer: B,D,E

Explanation:

If Subnet Mask is 255.255.255.128 the hosts vary from x.x.x.0 -x.x.x.127 & x.x.x.128- x.x.x.255,so the IP Addresses of 2 hosts fall in different subnets so each interfaceneeds an IP an address so that they can communicate each other.

If Subnet Mask is 255.255.255.0 the 2 specified hosts fall in different subnets so they need a

Layer 3 device to communicate.

If Subnet Mask is 255.255.254.0 the 2 specified hosts are in same subnetso are in network

address and can be accommodated in same Layer 2 domainand can communicate with each

other directly using the Layer 2 address.

QUESTION NO: 3

Which layer in the OSI reference model is responsible for determining the availability of the

receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication?

A. transport

B. network

C. presentation

D. session

E. application

Answer: E

Explanation:

This question is to examine the OSI reference model.

The Application layer is responsible for identifying and establishing the availability of the intended

communication partner and determining whether sufficient resources for the intended

communication exist.

QUESTION NO: 4

Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)

A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.

B. A modem terminates a digital local loop.

C. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.

D. A modem terminates an analog local loop.

E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device.

F. A router is commonly considered a DCE device.

Answer: A,D,E

Explanation:

The idea behind a WAN is to be able to connect two DTE networks together through a DCE

network. The network’s DCE device (includes CSU/DSU) provides clocking to the DTE-connected

interface (the router’s serial interface).

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A modem modulates outgoing digital signals from a computer or other digital device to analog

signals for a conventional copper twisted pair telephone line and demodulates the incoming

analog signal and converts it to a digital signal for the digital device. A CSU/DSU is used between

two digital lines -

For more explanation of answer D, in telephony thelocal loop(also referred to as a subscriber

line) is the physical link or circuit that connects from the demarcation point of the customer

premises to the edge of the carrier or telecommunications service provider’s network. Therefore a modem terminates an analog local loop is correct.

QUESTION NO: 5

Refer to the exhibit.

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Host A pings interface S0/0 on router 3. What is the TTL value for that ping?

A. 252

B. 253

C. 254

D. 255

Answer: B

Explanation:

From the CCNA ICND2 Exam book: “Routers decrement the TTL by 1 every time they forward a

packet; if a router decrements the TTL to 0, it throws away the packet. This prevents packets from

rotating forever.” I want to make it clear that before the router forwards a packet, the TTL is still

remain the same. For example in the topology above, pings to S0/1 and S0/0 of Router 2 have the

same TTL.

The picture below shows TTL values for each interface of each router and for Host B. Notice that

Host A initializes ICMP packet with a TTL of 255:

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QUESTION NO: 6

A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an

FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network

administrator is using for this operation?

A. application

B. presentation

C. session

D. transport

E. internet

F. data link

Answer: A

Explanation:

FTP belongs to Application layer and it is also the highest layer of the OSI model.

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QUESTION NO: 7

Refer to the exhibit.

After HostA pings HostB, which entry will be in the ARP cache of HostA to support this

transmission?

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A. Exhibit A

B. Exhibit B

C. Exhibit C

D. Exhibit D

E. Exhibit E

F. Exhibit F

Answer: A

Explanation:

Host A knows host B is in another network so it will send the pings to its default gateway

192.168.6.1. Host A sends a broadcast frame asking the MAC address of

192.168.6.1.Thisinformation (IP and MAC address of the default gateway) is saved in its ARP

cache for later use.

QUESTION NO: 8

A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted

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pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?

A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.

B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.

C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.

D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.

E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Modern Ethernet networks built with switches and full-duplex connections no longer utilize

CSMA/CD. CSMA/CD is only used in obsolete shared media Ethernet (which uses repeater or

hub).

QUESTION NO: 9

A receiving host computes the checksum on a frame and determines that the frame is damaged.

The frame is then discarded. At which OSI layer did this happen?

A. session

B. transport

C. network

D. data link

E. physical

Answer: D

Explanation:

The Data Link layer provides the physical transmission of the data and handles error notification,

network topology, and flow control. The Data Link layer formats the message into pieces, each

called a data frame, and adds a customized header containing the hardware destination and

source address. Protocols Data Unit (PDU) on Datalink layer is called frame. According to this

question the frame is damaged and discarded which will happen at the Data Link layer.

QUESTION NO: 10

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Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose

two.)

A. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control

information.

B. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the

segment.

C. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination

host addresses and protocol-related control information.

D. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to

a segment.

E. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.

Answer: A,D

Explanation:

The transport layer segments data into smaller pieces for transport. Each segment is assigned a

sequence number, so that the receiving device can reassemble the data on arrival.

The transport layer also use flow control to maximize the transfer rate while minimizing the

requirements to retransmit. For example, in TCP, basic flow control is implemented by

acknowledgment by the receiver of the receipt of data; the sender waits for this acknowledgment

before sending the next part.

The Network layer (Layer 3) has two key responsibilities. First, this layer controls the logical

addressing of devices. Second, the network layer determines the best path to a particular

destination network, and routes the data appropriately.

QUESTION NO: 11

Refer to the graphic.

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Host A is communicating with the server. What will be the source MAC address of the frames

received by Host A from the server?

A. the MAC address of router interface e0

B. the MAC address of router interface e1

C. the MAC address of the server network interface

D. the MAC address of host A

Answer: A

Explanation:

Whereas switches can only examine and forward packets based on the contents of the MAC

header, routers can look further into the packet to discover the network for which a packet is

destined. Routers make forwarding decisions based on the packet's network-layer header (such

as an IPX header or IP header). These network-layer headers contain source and destination

network addresses. Local devices address packets to the router's MAC address in the MAC

header. After receiving the packets, the router must perform the following steps:

1. Check the incoming packet for corruption, and remove the MAC header. The router checks the

packet for MAC-layer errors. The router then strips off the MAC header and examines the networklayer

header to determine what to do with the packet.

2. Examine the age of the packet. The router must ensure that the packet has not come too far to

be forwarded. For example, IPX headers contain a hop count. By default, 15 hops is the maximum

number of hops (or routers) that a packet can cross. If a packet has a hop count of 15, the router

discards the packet. IP headers contain a Time to Live (TTL) value. Unlike the IPX hop count,

which increments as the packet is forwarded through each router, the IP TTL value decrements as

the IP packet is forwarded through each router. If an IP packet has a TTL value of 1, the router

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discards the packet. A router cannot decrement the TTL value to 1 and then forward the packet.

3. Determine the route to the destination. Routers maintain a routing table that lists available

networks, the direction to the desired network (the outgoing interface number), and the distance to

those networks. After determining which direction to forward the packet, the router must build a

new header. (If you want to read the IP routing tables on a Windows 95/98 workstation, type

ROUTE PRINT in the DOS box.)

4. Build the new MAC header and forward the packet. Finally, the router builds a new MAC header

for the packet. The MAC header includes the router's MAC address and the final destination's

MAC address or the MAC address of the next router in the path.

QUESTION NO: 12

Refer to the exhibit.

What two results would occur if the hub were to be replaced with a switch that is configured with

one Ethernet VLAN? (Choose two.)

A. The number of collision domains would remain the same.

B. The number of collision domains would decrease.

C. The number of collision domains would increase.

D. The number of broadcast domains would remain the same.

E. The number of broadcast domains would decrease.

F. The number of broadcast domains would increase.

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Answer: C,D

Explanation:

Basically, a collision domain is a network segment that allows normal network traffic to flow back

and forth. In the old days of hubs, this meant you had a lot of collisions, and the old CSMA/CD

would be working overtime to try to get those packets re-sent every time there was a collision on

the wire (sinceEthernetallows only one host to be transmitting at once without there being a traffic

jam). With switches, you break up collision domains by switching packets bound for other collision

domains. These days, since we mostly use switches to connect computers to the network, you

generally have one collision domain to a PC.

Broadcast domains are exactly what they imply: they are network segments that allow broadcasts

to be sent across them. Since switches and bridges allow for broadcast traffic to go unswitched,

broadcasts can traverse collision domains freely. Routers, however, don't allow broadcasts

through by default, so when a broadcast hits a router (or the perimeter of a VLAN), it doesn't get

forwarded. The simple way to look at it is this way: switches break up collision domains, while

routers (and VLANs) break up collision domains and broadcast domains. Also, a broadcast

domain can contain multiple collision domains, but a collision domain can never have more than

one broadcast domain associated with it.

Collision Domain: A group of Ethernet or Fast Ethernet devices in a CSMA/CD LAN that are

connected by repeaters and compete for access on the network. Only one device in the collision

domain may transmit at any one time, and the other devices in the domain listen to the network in

order to avoid data collisions. A collision domain is sometimes referred to as an Ethernet segment.

Broadcast Domain: Broadcasting sends a message to everyone on the local network (subnet). An

example for Broadcasting would be DHCP Request from a Client PC. The Client is asking for a IP

Address, but the client does not know how to reach the DHCP Server. So the client sends a DHCP

Discover packet to EVERY PC in the local subnet (Broadcast). But only the DHCP Server will

answer to the Request.

How to count them?

Broadcast Domain:

No matter how many hosts or devices are connected together, if they are connected with a

repeater, hub, switch or bridge, all these devices are in ONE Broadcast domain (assuming a

single VLAN). A Router is used to separate Broadcast-Domains (we could also call them Subnets

- or call them VLANs).

So, if a router stands between all these devices, we have TWO broadcast domains.

Collision Domain:

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Each connection from a single PC to a Layer 2 switch is ONE Collision domain. For example, if 5

PCs are connected with separate cables to a switch, we have 5 Collision domains. If this switch is

connected to another switch or a router, we have one collision domain more.

If 5 Devices are connected to a Hub, this is ONE Collision Domain. Each device that is connected

to a Layer 1 device (repeater, hub) will reside in ONE single collision domain.

QUESTION NO: 13

Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? (Choose three.)

A. Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share VLAN information.

B. Establishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains.

C. Switches that are configured with VLANs make forwarding decisions based on both Layer 2

and Layer 3 address information.

D. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.

E. In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will

contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast

domain will have only one root port.

F. If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the address.

Answer: B,D,E

Explanation:

Microsegmentation is a network design (functionality) where each workstation or device on a

network gets its own dedicated segment (collision domain) to the switch. Each network device

gets the full bandwidth of the segment and does not have to share the segment with other devices.

Microsegmentation reduces and can even eliminate collisions because each segment is its own

collision domain ->.

Note: Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions but it increases the number of

collision domains.

QUESTION NO: 14

Where does routing occur within the DoD TCP/IP reference model?

A. application

B. internet

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C. network

D. transport

Answer: B

Explanation:

The picture below shows the comparison between TCP/IP model & OSI model. Notice that the

Internet Layer of TCP/IP is equivalent to the Network Layer which is responsible for routing

decision.

QUESTION NO: 15

Refer to exhibit:

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Which two destination addresses will be used by Host A to send data to Host C? (Choose two.)

A. the IP address of Switch 1

B. the MAC address of Switch 1

C. the IP address of Host C

D. the MAC address of Host C

E. the IP address of the router's E0 interface

F. the MAC address of the router's E0 interface

Answer: C,F

Explanation:

While transferring data through many different networks, the source and destination IP addresses

are not changed. Only the source and destination MAC addresses are changed. So in this case

Host A will use the IP address of Host C and the MAC address of E0 interface to send data. When

the router receives this data, it replaces the source MAC address with itsown E1 interface’s MAC

address and replaces the destination MAC address with Host C’s MAC address before sending to

Host C.

QUESTION NO: 16

For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? (Choose two.)

A. to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2

B. to allow communication with devices on a different network

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C. to differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet

D. to establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first

E. to allow communication between different devices on the same network

F. to allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown

Answer: A,E

Explanation:

Physical addresses or MAC addresses are used to identify devices at layer 2.

MAC addresses are only used to communicate on the same network. To communicate on different

network we have to use Layer 3 addresses (IP addresses) -> B is not correct.

Layer 2 frame and Layer 3 packet can be recognized via headers. Layer 3 packet also contains

physical address ->.

On Ethernet, each frame has the same priority to transmit by default ->.

All devices need a physical address to identify itself. If not, they cannot communicate ->.

QUESTION NO: 17

Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the information given, which switch will be elected root bridge and why?

A. Switch A, because it has the lowest MAC address

B. Switch A, because it is the most centrally located switch

C. Switch B, because it has the highest MAC address

D. Switch C, because it is the most centrally located switch

E. Switch C, because it has the lowest priority

F. Switch D, because it has the highest priority

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Answer: E

Explanation:

To elect the root bridge in the LAN, first check the priority value. The switch having the lowest

prioritywill win the election process.If Priority Value is the same then it checks the MAC Address;

the switch having the lowest MAC Address will become the root bridge.In this case, switch C has

the lowest MAC Address so it becomes the root bridge.

QUESTION NO: 18

Which of the following statements describe the network shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)

A. There are two broadcast domains in the network.

B. There are four broadcast domains in the network.

C. There are six broadcast domains in the network.

D. There are four collision domains in the network.

E. There are five collision domains in the network.

F. There are seven collision domains in the network.

Answer: A,F

Explanation:

Only router can break up broadcast domains so in the exhibit there are 2 broadcast domains: from

e0 interface to the left is a broadcast domain and from e1 interface to the right is another

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broadcast domain ->.

Both router and switch can break up collision domains so there is only 1 collision domain on the

left of the router (because hub doesn’t break up collision domain) and there are 6 collision

domains on the right of the router (1 collision domain from e1 interface to the switch + 5 collision

domains for 5 PCs in Production) ->.

QUESTION NO: 19

In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices transmit? (Choose two.)

A. when they receive a special token

B. when there is a carrier

C. when they detect no other devices are sending

D. when the medium is idle

E. when the server grants access

Answer: C,D

Explanation:

Ethernet network is a shared environment so all devices have the right to access to the medium. If

more than one device transmits simultaneously, the signals collide and cannot reach the

destination.

If a device detects another device is sending, it will wait for a specified amount of time before

attempting to transmit.

When there is no traffic detected, a device will transmit its message. While this transmission is

occurring, the device continues to listen for traffic or collisions on the LAN. After the message is

sent, the device returns to its default listening mode.

QUESTION NO: 20

A router has two Fast Ethernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local

network. How can you accomplish this task, using the fewest physical interfaces and without

decreasing network performance?

A. Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a Fast Ethernet interface on the router.

B. Add a second router to handle the VLAN traffic.

C. Add two more Fast Ethernet interfaces.

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D. Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.

Answer: D

Explanation:

A router on a stick allows you to use sub-interfaces to create multiple logical networks on a single

physical interface.

QUESTION NO: 21

Host 1 is trying to communicate with Host 2. The e0 interface on Router C is down.

Which of the following are true? (Choose two.)

A. Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1 that Host 2 cannot be reached.

B. Router C will use ICMP to inform Router B that Host 2 cannot be reached.

C. Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1, Router A, and Router B that Host 2 cannot be

reached.

D. Router C will send a Destination Unreachable message type.

E. Router C will send a Router Selection message type.

F. Router C will send a Source Quench message type.

Answer: A,D

Explanation:

Host 1 is trying to communicate with Host 2. The e0 interface on Router C is down. Router C will

send ICMP packets to inform Host 1 that Host 2 cannot be reached.

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QUESTION NO: 22

What is the difference between a CSU/DSU and a modem?

A. A CSU/DSU converts analog signals from a router to a leased line; a modem converts analog

signals from a router to a leased line.

B. A CSU/DSU converts analog signals from a router to a phone line; a modem converts digital

signals from a router to a leased line.

C. A CSU/DSU converts digital signals from a router to a phone line; a modem converts analog

signals from a router to a phone line.

D. A CSU/DSU converts digital signals from a router to a leased line; a modem converts digital

signals from a router to a phone line.

Answer: D

Explanation:

CSU/DSU is used to convert digital signals from a router to a network circuit such as a T1, while a

modem is used to convert digital signals over a regular POTS line.

QUESTION NO: 23 DRAG DROP

Drag the cable type on the left to the purpose for which it is best suited on the right. (Not all

options are used.)

Answer:

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Explanation:

To remember which type of cable you should use, follow these tips:

- To connecttwo serial interfacesof 2 routers we useserial cable

– To specify when we use crossover cable or straight-through cable, we should remember:

Group 1:Router, Host, Server

Group 2:Hub, Switch

One device in group 1 + One device in group 2: usestraight-through cable

Two devices in the same group: usecrossover cable

For example: we use straight-through cable to connect switch to router, switch to host, hub to host,

hub to server… and we use crossover cable to connect switch to switch, switch to hub, router to

router, host to host…)

QUESTION NO: 24 DRAG DROP

Match the terms on the left with the appropriate OSI layer on the right. (Not all options are used.)

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Answer:

Explanation:

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QUESTION NO: 25 DRAG DROP

Refer to the exhibit. PC_1 is exchanging packets with the FTP server. Consider the packets as

they leave RouterB interface Fa0/1 towards RouterA. Drag the correct frame and packet

addresses to their place in the table.

Answer:

Explanation:

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Source Mac AddressDestination Mac AddressSource IP addressDestination MAC address

MAC 0000.0c89.3333MAC 0000.0c89.9999IP 172.16.34.250IP 172.16.21.7

QUESTION NO: 26 DRAG DROP

Refer to the exhibit. PC_1 is sending packets to the FTP server. Consider the packets as they

leave RouterA interface Fa0/0 towards RouterB. Drag the correct frame and packet address to

their place in the table.

Answer:

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Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 27 DRAG DROP

Refer to the exhibit. Complete this network diagram by dragging the correct device name or

description to the correct location. Not all the names or descriptions will be used.

Answer:

Explanation:

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Topic 2, LAN Switching Technologies

QUESTION NO: 28

Refer to the exhibit.

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Switch port FastEthernet 0/24 on ALSwitch1 will be used to create an IEEE 802.1Q-compliant

trunk to another switch. Based on the output shown, what is the reason the trunk does not form,

even though the proper cabling has been attached?

A. VLANs have not been created yet.

B. An IP address must be configured for the port.

C. The port is currently configured for access mode.

D. The correct encapsulation type has not been configured.

E. The “no shutdown” command has not been entered for the port.

Answer: C

Explanation:

According to the output shown the switchport (layer 2 Switching) is enabled and the port is in

access mode. To make a trunk link the port should configured as a trunk port, not an access port,

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by using the following command: (Config-if)#switchport mode trunk.

QUESTION NO: 29

Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?

A. learning

B. listening

C. discarding

D. forwarding

Answer: C

Explanation:

PVST+ is based on IEEE802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol (STP). But PVST+ has only 3 port states

(discarding, learning and forwarding) while STP has 5 port states (blocking, listening, learning,

forwarding and disabled). So discarding is a new port state in PVST+.

QUESTION NO: 30

VLAN 3 is not yet configured on your switch. What happens if you set the switchport access vlan 3

command in interface configuration mode?

A. The command is rejected.

B. The port turns amber.

C. The command is accepted and the respective VLAN is added to vlan.dat.

D. The command is accepted and you must configure the VLAN manually.

Answer: C

Explanation:

The “switchport access vlan 3” will put that interface as belonging to VLAN 3 while also updated

the VLAN database automatically to include VLAN 3.

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QUESTION NO: 31

What value is primarily used to determine which port becomes the root port on each nonroot

switch in a spanning-tree topology?

A. path cost

B. lowest port MAC address

C. VTP revision number

D. highest port priority number

E. port priority number and MAC address

Answer: A

Explanation:

The path cost to the root bridge is the most important value to determine which port will become

the root port on each non-root switch. In particular, the port with lowest cost to the root bridge will

become root port (on non-root switch).

QUESTION NO: 32

In a switched environment, what does the IEEE 802.1Q standard describe?

A. the operation of VTP

B. a method of VLAN trunking

C. an approach to wireless LAN communication

D. the process for root bridge selection

E. VLAN pruning

Answer: B

Explanation:

A broadcast domain must sometimes exist on more than one switch in the network. To accomplish

this, one switch must send frames to another switch and indicate which VLAN a particular frame

belongs to. On Cisco switches, a trunk link is created to accomplish this VLAN identification. ISL

and IEEE 802.1Q are different methods of putting a VLAN identifier in a Layer 2 frame.

The IEEE 802.1Q protocol interconnects VLANs between multiple switches, routers, and servers.

With 802.1Q, a network administrator can define a VLAN topology to span multiple physical

devices.

Cisco switches support IEEE 802.1Q for FastEthernet and Gigabit Ethernet interfaces. An 802.1Q

trunk link provides VLAN identification by adding a 4-byte tag to an Ethernet Frame as it leaves a

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trunk port.

QUESTION NO: 33

Refer to the exhibit.

Switch-1 needs to send data to a host with a MAC address of 00b0.d056.efa4. What will Switch-1

do with this data?

A. Switch-1 will drop the data because it does not have an entry for that MAC address.

B. Switch-1 will flood the data out all of its ports except the port from which the data originated.

C. Switch-1 will send an ARP request out all its ports except the port from which the data

originated.

D. Switch-1 will forward the data to its default gateway.

Answer: B

Explanation:

This question tests the operating principles of the Layer 2 switch. Check the MAC address table of

Switch1 and find that the MAC address of the host does not exist in the table. Switch1 will flood

the data out all of its ports except the port from which the data originated to determine which port

the host is located in.

Switches work as follows:

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In output there is no MAC address of give host so switch floods to all ports except the source port.

QUESTION NO: 34

What is the function of the command switchport trunk native vlan 999 on a Cisco Catalyst switch?

A. It creates a VLAN 999 interface.

B. It designates VLAN 999 for untagged traffic.

C. It blocks VLAN 999 traffic from passing on the trunk.

D. It designates VLAN 999 as the default for all unknown tagged traffic.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Configuring the Native VLAN for Untagged Traffic

A trunk port configured with 802.1Q tagging can receive both tagged and untagged traffic. By

default, the switch forwards untagged traffic in the native VLAN configured for the port. The native

VLAN is VLAN 1 by default.

QUESTION NO: 35

Which two protocols are used by bridges and/or switches to prevent loops in a layer 2 network?

(Choose two.)

A. 802.1d

B. VTP

C. 802.1q

D. STP

E. SAP

Answer: A,D

Explanation:

This question is to examine the STP protocol.

STP (802.1d) is used to prevent Layer 2 loops.

802.1q is a Frame Relay protocol which belongs to VLAN.

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SAP is a concept of the OSI model.

QUESTION NO: 36

Which switch would STP choose to become the root bridge in the selection process?

A. 32768: 11-22-33-44-55-66

B. 32768: 22-33-44-55-66-77

C. 32769: 11-22-33-44-55-65

D. 32769: 22-33-44-55-66-78

Answer: A

Explanation:

The root bridge of the spanning tree is the bridge with the smallest (lowest) bridge ID. Each bridge

has a configurable priority number and a MAC Address; the bridge ID contains both numbers

combined together - Bridge priority + MAC (32768.0200.0000.1111). The Bridge priority default is

32768 and can only be configured in multiples of 4096(Spanning tree uses the 12 bits extended

system ID). To compare two bridge IDs, the priority is compared first, as if looking at a real number

anything less than 32768...will become the target of being the root. If two bridges have equal

priority then the MAC addresses are compared; for example, if switches A

(MAC=0200.0000.1111) and B (MAC=0200.0000.2222) both have a priority of 32768 then switch

A will be selected as the root bridge.

In this case, 32768: 11-22-33-44-55-66 would be the bridge because it has a lower priority and

MAC address.

QUESTION NO: 37

A switch is configured with all ports assigned to VLAN 2 with full duplex FastEthernet to segment

existing departmental traffic. What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new VLAN on the

switch?

A. More collision domains will be created.

B. IP address utilization will be more efficient.

C. More bandwidth will be required than was needed previously.

D. An additional broadcast domain will be created.

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Answer: D

Explanation:

Each VLAN creates its own broadcast domain.Since this is a full duplex switch, each port is a

separate collision domain.

QUESTION NO: 38

What are three benefits of implementing VLANs? (Choose three.)

A. A higher level of network security can be reached by separating sensitive data traffic from other

network traffic.

B. A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many physical groups to use the

same network infrastructure.

C. A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many logical networks to use the

same network infrastructure.

D. Broadcast storms can be mitigated by increasing the number of broadcast domains, thus

reducing their size.

E. Broadcast storms can be mitigated by decreasing the number of broadcast domains, thus

increasing their size.

F. VLANs make it easier for IT staff to configure new logical groups, because the VLANs all belong

to the same broadcast domain.

G. Port-based VLANs increase switch-port use efficiency, thanks to 802.1Q trunks.

Answer: A,C,D

Explanation:

Benefits of VLANs

VLAN is a network structure which allows users to communicate while in different locations by

sharing one multicast domain and a single broadcast. They provide numerousnetworkingbenefits

and have become popular in the market. For instance, it helps reduce administrative costs when

users are geographically dispersed.

1. Inexpensive

The popularity of VLANs is due to the fact that changes, adds, and moves can be attained simply

by making necessary configurations on the VLAN port. Time-consuming, re-addressing, and host

reconfigurations is now a thing of the past, because network configuration can be made at ease

when need arises.

2. Better management

A VLAN typically solve the scalability issues that exist in a large network by breaking the main

domain into several VLAN groups or smaller broadcast configurations, thereby encourage better

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control of multicast traffic as well as broadcast domains.

3. Improves network security

High-security can be positioned in different VLAN groups to ensure that non-members cannot

receive their broadcasts. On the other hand, a router is added and workgroups relocated into

centralized locations.

4. Enhances performance

A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many logical networks to use the

same network infrastructure.

5. Segment multiple networks

VLANs are typically used to achieve multiple purposes. They are popularly used to reduce

broadcast traffic.Each VLAN creates a separate, smaller broadcast domain.

6. Better administration

VLANs facilitate grouping of multiple geographical stations. When VLAN users move to another

physical location, the network does not have to be configured.

QUESTION NO: 39

Which IEEE standard protocol is initiated as a result of successful DTP completion in a switch over

Fast Ethernet?

A. 802.3ad

B. 802.1w

C. 802.1D

D. 802.1Q

Answer: D

Explanation:

Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) is a Cisco proprietary protocol for negotiating trunking on a link

between two devices and for negotiating the type of trunking encapsulation (802.1Q) to be used.

QUESTION NO: 40

Which of the following are benefits of VLANs? (Choose three.)

A. They increase the size of collision domains.

B. They allow logical grouping of users by function.

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C. They can enhance network security.

D. They increase the size of broadcast domains while decreasing the number of collision domains.

E. They increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast

domains.

F. They simplify switch administration.

Answer: B,C,E

Explanation:

When using VLAN the number and size of collision domains remain the same ->.

VLANs allow to group users by function,not by location or geography ->.

VLANs help minimize the incorrect configuration of VLANs so it enhances the security ofthe

network ->.

VLAN increases the size of broadcast domains but does not decrease the number of collision

domains ->.

VLANs increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast

domains which increase the utilization of the links. It is also a big advantage of VLAN ->.

VLANs are useful but they are more complex and need more administration ->.

QUESTION NO: 41

Refer to the exhibit.

A technician has installed SwitchB and needs to configure it for remote access from the

management workstation connected to SwitchA. Which set of commands is required to

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accomplish this task?

A. SwitchB(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1

SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0

SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown

B. SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1

SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0

SwitchB(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0

SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown

C. SwitchB(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254

SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1

SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0

SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown

D. SwitchB(config)# ip default-network 192.168.8.254

SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1

SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0

SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown

E. SwitchB(config)# ip route 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0

SwitchB(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1

SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0

SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown

Answer: C

Explanation:

To remote access to SwitchB, it must have a management IP address on a VLAN on that switch.

Traditionally, we often use VLAN 1 as the management VLAN (but in fact it is not secure).

In the exhibit, we can recognize that the Management Workstation is in a different subnet from the

SwitchB. For intersubnetwork communication to occur, you must configure at least one default

gateway. This default gateway is used to forward traffic originating from the switch only, not to

forward traffic sent by devices connected to the switch.

QUESTION NO: 42

Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (Choose two.)

A. discarding

B. listening

C. learning

D. forwarding

E. disabled

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Answer: A,D

Explanation:

There are only three port states left in RSTP that correspond to the three possible operational

states. The 802.1D disabled, blocking, and listening states are merged into a unique 802.1w

discarding state.

STP (802.1D) Port State

RSTP (802.1w) Port State

Is Port Included in Active Topology?

Is Port Learning MAC Addresses?

Disabled

Discarding

Blocking

Discarding

Listening

Discarding

Yes

Learning

Yes

Forwarding

Yes

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_white_paper09186a0080094cfa.shtml

#states

QUESTION NO: 43

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Which two commands can be used to verify a trunk link configuration status on a given Cisco

switch interface? (Choose two.)

A. show interface trunk

B. show interface interface

C. show ip interface brief

D. show interface vlan

E. show interface switchport

Answer: A,E

Explanation:

Example output from these two commands:

SW3#show interface trunk

Port Mode Encapsulation Status Native vlan

Fa0/19 auto n-802.1q trunking 1

Fa0/20 auto n-802.1q trunking 1

Fa0/21 auto n-802.1q trunking 1

Fa0/22 auto n-802.1q trunking 1

Port Vlans allowed on trunk

Fa0/19 1-4094

Fa0/20 1-4094

Fa0/21 1-4094

Fa0/22 1-4094

SW1#show interface fast 0/2 switchport

Name: Fa0/2

Switchport: Enabled

Administrative Mode: dynamic desirable

Operational Mode: down

Administrative Trunking Encapsulation: dot1q

Negotiation of TrunkinG. On

Access Mode VLAN: 1 (default)

Trunking Native Mode VLAN: 1 (default)

Voice VLAN: none

QUESTION NO: 44

Which command enables RSTP on a switch?

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A. spanning-tree uplinkfast

B. spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst

C. spanning-tree backbonefast

D. spanning-tree mode mst

Answer: B

Explanation:

Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) is an enhancement of the original STP 802.1D protocol.

The RSTP 802.1w protocol is an IEEE open implementation. Cisco has its own proprietary

implementation of RSTP, that includes the benefits of its Per-VLAN spanning tree protocols, called

Rapid-PVST+.

To activate the Rapid-PVST+ protocol:

switch(config)#spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst

QUESTION NO: 45

Refer to the exhibit.

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All switch ports are assigned to the correct VLANs, but none of the hosts connected to SwitchA

can communicate with hosts in the same VLAN connected to SwitchB. Based on the output

shown, what is the most likely problem?

A. The access link needs to be configured in multiple VLANs.

B. The link between the switches is configured in the wrong VLAN.

C. The link between the switches needs to be configured as a trunk.

D. VTP is not configured to carry VLAN information between the switches.

E. Switch IP addresses must be configured in order for traffic to be forwarded between the

switches.

Answer: C

Explanation:

In order to pass traffic from VLANs on different switches, the connections between the switches

must be configured as trunk ports.

QUESTION NO: 46

Refer to the exhibit.

Which WAN protocol is being used?

A. ATM

B. HDLC

C. Frame Relay

D. PPP

Answer: C

Explanation:

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This question is to examine the show int command.

According to the information provided in the exhibit, we can know that the data link protocol used

in this network is the Frame Relay protocol.

“LMI enq sent…”

QUESTION NO: 47

Refer to the exhibit.

Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the reason that interface

FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2?

A. This switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in VLAN 2.

B. This switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802.1d Spanning

Tree.

C. This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the topology.

D. This switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Since the port is in the blocked status, we must assume that there is a shorter path to the root

bridge elsewhere.

QUESTION NO: 48

Why will a switch never learn a broadcast address?

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A. Broadcasts only use network layer addressing.

B. A broadcast frame is never forwarded by a switch.

C. A broadcast address will never be the source address of a frame.

D. Broadcast addresses use an incorrect format for the switching table.

E. Broadcast frames are never sent to switches.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Switches dynamically learn MAC addresses based on the source MAC addresses that it sees, and

since a broadcast is never the source, it will never learn the broadcast address.

QUESTION NO: 49

Refer to the exhibit.

Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?

A. It has more than one interface that is connected to the root network segment.

B. It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree.

C. It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge.

D. It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge.

Answer: D

Explanation:

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The root bridge is determined by the lowest bridge ID, and this switch has a bridge ID priority of

32768, which is higher than the roots priority of 20481.

QUESTION NO: 50

Which two link protocols are used to carry multiple VLANs over a single link? (Choose two.)

A. VTP

B. 802.1q

C. IGP

D. ISL

E. 802.3u

Answer: B,D

Explanation:

Cisco switches can use two different encapsulation types for trunks, the industry standard

802.1qor the Cisco proprietary ISL.Generally, most network engineers prefer to use 802.1q since it

is standards based and will interoperate with other vendors.

QUESTION NO: 51

Assuming the default switch configuration, which VLAN range can be added, modified, and

removed on a Cisco switch?

A. 1 through 1001

B. 2 through 1001

C. 1 through 1002

D. 2 through 1005

Answer: B

Explanation:

Explanation

VLAN 1 is the default VLAN on Cisco switch. It always exists and cannot be added, modified or

removed.

VLANs 1002-1005 are default VLANs for FDDI & Token Ring and they can’t be deleted or used for

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Ethernet.

QUESTION NO: 52

Which statement about VLAN operation on Cisco Catalyst switches is true?

A. When a packet is received from an 802.1Q trunk, the VLAN ID can be determined from the

source MAC address and the MAC address table.

B. Unknown unicast frames are retransmitted only to the ports that belong to the same VLAN.

C. Broadcast and multicast frames are retransmitted to ports that are configured on different

VLAN.

D. Ports between switches should be configured in access mode so that VLANs can span across

the ports.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Each VLAN resides in its own broadcast domain, so incoming frames with unknown destinations

are only transmitted to ports that reside in the same VLAN as the incoming frame.

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QUESTION NO: 53

Refer to the topology shown in the exhibit.

Which three ports will be STP designated ports if all the links are operating at the same

bandwidth? (Choose three.)

A. Switch A - Fa0/0

B. Switch A - Fa0/1

C. Switch B - Fa0/0

D. Switch B - Fa0/1

E. Switch C - Fa0/0

F. Switch C - Fa0/1

Answer: B,C,D

Explanation:

This question is to check the spanning tree election problem.

1. First, select the root bridge, which can be accomplished by comparing the bridge ID, the

smallest will be selected. Bridge-id= bridge priority + MAC address. The three switches in the

figure all have the default priority, so we should compare the MAC address, it is easy to find that

SwitchB is the root bridge.

2. Select the root port on the non-root bridge, which can be completed through comparing root

path cost. The smallest will be selected as the root port.

3. Next, select the Designated Port. First, compare the path cost, if the costs happen to be the

same, then compare the BID, still the smallest will be selected. Each link has a DP. Based on the

exhibit above, we can find DP on each link. The DP on the link between SwitchA and SwitchC is

SwitchA'Fa0/1, because it has the smallest MAC address.

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QUESTION NO: 54

Refer to the exhibit.

How should the FastEthernet0/1 ports on the switches that are shown in the exhibit be configured

to allow connectivity between all devices?

A. The ports only need to be connected by a crossover cable.

B. SwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1

SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

C. SwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1

SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode access

SwitchX(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1

D. SwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1

SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

SwitchX(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 1

SwitchX(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 10

SwitchX(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 20

Answer: B

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Explanation:

IN order for multiple VLANs to cross switches, the connection between the switches must be a

trunk.The “switchport mode trunk” command is all that is needed, the individual VLANs should not

be listed over that trunk interface.

QUESTION NO: 55

Refer to the exhibit.

A frame on VLAN 1 on switch S1 is sent to switch S2 where the frame is received on VLAN 2.

What causes this behavior?

A. trunk mode mismatches

B. allowing only VLAN 2 on the destination

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C. native VLAN mismatches

D. VLANs that do not correspond to a unique IP subnet

Answer: C

Explanation:

Untagged frames are encapsulated with the native VLAN.In this case, the native VLANs are

different so although S1 will tag it as VLAN 1 it will be received by S2.

QUESTION NO: 56

Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.)

A. RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure.

B. RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles.

C. RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding.

D. RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does.

E. RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence.

F. RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links.

Answer: A,B,D

Explanation:

One big disadvantage of STP is the low convergence which is very important in switched network.

To overcome this problem, in 2001, the IEEE with document 802.1w introduced an evolution of the

Spanning Tree Protocol: Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP), which significantly reduces the

convergence time after a topology change occurs in the network. While STP can take 30 to 50

seconds to transit from a blocking state to a forwarding state, RSTP is typically able to respond

less than 10 seconds of a physical link failure.

RSTP works by adding an alternative port and a backup port compared to STP. These ports are

allowed to immediately enter the forwarding state rather than passively wait for the network to

converge.

RSTP bridge port roles:

* Root port– A forwarding port that is the closest to the root bridge in terms of path cost

* Designated port– A forwarding port for every LAN segment

* Alternate port– A best alternate path to the root bridge. This path is different than using the root

port. The alternative port moves to the forwarding state if there is a failure on the designated port

for the segment.

* Backup port– A backup/redundant path to a segment where another bridge port already

connects. The backup port applies only when a single switch has two links to the same segment

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(collision domain). To have two links to the same collision domain, the switch must be attached to

a hub.

* Disabled port– Not strictly part of STP, a network administrator can manually disable a port.

QUESTION NO: 57

At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops?

A. physical

B. data link

C. network

D. transport

Answer: B

Explanation:

RSTP and STP operate on switches and are based on the exchange of Bridge Protocol Data Units

(BPDUs) between switches. One of the most important fields in BPDUs is the Bridge Priority in

which the MAC address is used to elect the Root Bridge -> RSTP operatesat Layer 2 – Data Link

layer ->.

QUESTION NO: 58

What does a Layer 2 switch use to decide where to forward a received frame?

A. source MAC address

B. source IP address

C. source switch port

D. destination IP address

E. destination port address

F. destination MAC address

Answer: F

Explanation:

When a frame is received, the switch looks at the destination hardware address and finds the

interface ifit is in its MAC address table.If the address is unknown, the frame is broadcast on all

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interfaces except the one it was received on.

QUESTION NO: 59

Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement is true?

A. The Fa0/11 role confirms that SwitchA is the root bridge for VLAN 20.

B. VLAN 20 is running the Per VLAN Spanning Tree Protocol.

C. The MAC address of the root bridge is 0017.596d.1580.

D. SwitchA is not the root bridge, because not all of the interface roles are designated.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Only non-root bridge can have root port. Fa0/11 is the root port so we can confirm this switch is

not the root bridge ->.

From the output we learn this switch is running Rapid STP, not PVST ->.

0017.596d.1580 is the MAC address of this switch, not of the root bridge. The MAC address of the

root bridge is 0017.596d.2a00 ->.

All of the interface roles of the root bridge are designated. SwitchA has one Root port and 1

Alternative port so it is not the root bridge.

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QUESTION NO: 60

Which two benefits are provided by creating VLANs? (Choose two.)

A. added security

B. dedicated bandwidth

C. provides segmentation

D. allows switches to route traffic between subinterfaces

E. contains collisions

Answer: A,C

Explanation:

AVLAN is a switched network that is logically segmented on an organizational basis, by functions,

project teams, or applications rather than on a physical or geographical basis.

Security:

VLANs also improve security by isolating groups. High-security users can be grouped into a

VLAN, possible on the same physical segment, and no users outside that VLAN can communicate

with them.

LAN Segmentation

VLANs allow logical network topologies to overlay the physical switched infrastructure such that

any arbitrary collection of LAN ports can be combined into an autonomous user group or

community of interest. The technology logically segments the network into separate Layer 2

broadcast domains whereby packets are switched between ports designated to be within the same

VLAN. By containing traffic originating on a particular LAN only to other LANs in the same VLAN,

switched virtual networks avoid wasting bandwidth.

QUESTION NO: 61

Which command can be used from a PC to verify the connectivity between hosts that connect

through a switch in the same LAN?

A. ping address

B. tracert address

C. traceroute address

D. arp address

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Answer: A

Explanation:

ICMP pings are used to verify connectivity between two IP hosts.Traceroute is used to verify the

router hop path traffic will take but in this case since the hosts are in the same LAN there will be

no router hops involved.

QUESTION NO: 62

Based on the network shown in the graphic

Which option contains both the potential networking problem and the protocol or setting that

should be used to prevent the problem?

A. routing loops, hold down timers

B. switching loops, split horizon

C. routing loops, split horizon

D. switching loops, VTP

E. routing loops, STP

F. switching loops, STP

Answer: F

Explanation:

The Spanning-Tree Protocol (STP) prevents loops from being formed when switches or bridges

are interconnected via multiple paths. Spanning-Tree Protocol implements the 802.1D IEEE

algorithm by exchanging BPDU messages with other switches to detect loops, and then removes

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the loop by shutting down selected bridge interfaces. This algorithm guarantees that there is one

and only one active path between two network devices.

QUESTION NO: 63

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the

exhibit? (Choose two.)

A. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.

B. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.

C. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.

D. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.

E. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit.

F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Switch2 trunk

ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type.

Answer: D,F

Explanation:

In order for multiple VLANs to connect to a single physical interface on a Cisco router,

subinterfaces must be used, one for each VLAN.This is known as the router on a stick

configuration.Also, for any trunk to be formed, both ends of the trunk must agree on the

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encapsulation type, so each one must be configured for 802.1q or ISL.

QUESTION NO: 64

Which two of these are characteristics of the 802.1Q protocol? (Choose two.)

A. It is used exclusively for tagging VLAN frames and does not address network reconvergence

following switched network topology changes.

B. It modifies the 802.3 frame header, and thus requires that the FCS be recomputed.

C. It is a Layer 2 messaging protocol which maintains VLAN configurations across networks.

D. It includes an 8-bit field which specifies the priority of a frame.

E. It is a trunking protocol capable of carrying untagged frames.

Answer: B,E

Explanation:

802.1Q protocol, or Virtual Bridged Local Area Networks protocol, mainly stipulates the realization

of the VLAN. 802.1Q is a standardized relay method that inserts 4 bytes field into the original

Ethernet frame and re-calculate the FCS. 802.1Q frame relay supports two types of frame: marked

and non-marked. Non-marked frame carries no VLAN identification information.

QUESTION NO: 65

Refer to the exhibit.

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Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as being configured to

run RSTP. No other configuration changes have been made. Which three of these show the

correct RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three.)

A. SwitchA, Fa0/2, designated

B. SwitchA, Fa0/1, root

C. SwitchB, Gi0/2, root

D. SwitchB, Gi0/1, designated

E. SwitchC, Fa0/2, root

F. SwitchD, Gi0/2, root

Answer: A,B,F

Explanation:

The question says “no other configuration changes have been made” so we can understand these

switches have the same bridge priority. Switch C has lowest MAC address so it will become root

bridge and 2 of its ports (Fa0/1 & Fa0/2) will be designated ports.

Because SwitchC is the root bridge so the 2 ports nearest SwitchC on SwitchA (Fa0/1) and

SwitchD (Gi0/2) will be root ports.

Now we come to the most difficult part of this question: SwitchB must have a root port so which

port will it choose? To answer this question we need to know about STP cost and port cost.

In general, “cost” is calculated based on bandwidth of the link. The higher the bandwidth on a link,

the lower the value of its cost. Below are the cost values you should memorize:

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SwitchB will choose the interface with lower cost to the root bridge as the root port so we must

calculate the cost on interface Gi0/1 & Gi0/2 of SwitchB to the root bridge. This can be calculated

from the “cost to the root bridge” of each switch becausea switch always advertises its cost to

the root bridgein its BPDU. The receiving switch willadd its local port cost value to the costin

the BPDU.

One more thing to notice is that a root bridge always advertises the cost to the root bridge (itself)

with an initial value of 0.

Now let’s have a look at the topology again

SwitchC advertises its cost to the root bridge with a value of 0. Switch D adds 4 (the cost value of

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1Gbps link) and advertises this value (4) to SwitchB. SwitchB adds another 4 and learns that it can

reach SwitchC via Gi0/1 port with a total cost of 8. The same process happens for SwitchA and

SwitchB learns that it can reach SwitchC via Gi0/2 with a total cost of 23 -> Switch B chooses

Gi0/1 as its root port ->.

Now our last task is to identify the port roles of the ports between SwitchA & SwitchB. It is rather

easy as the MAC address of SwitchA is lower than that of SwitchB so Fa0/2 of SwitchA will be

designated port while Gi0/2 of SwitchB will be alternative port.

Below summaries all the port roles of these switches:

+ DP: Designated Port (forwarding state)

+ RP: Root Port (forwarding state)

+ AP: Alternative Port (blocking state)

QUESTION NO: 66

Refer to the exhibit.

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The network administrator normally establishes a Telnet session with the switch from host A.

However, host A is unavailable. The administrator's attempt to telnet to the switch from host B

fails, but pings to the other two hosts are successful. What is the issue?

A. Host B and the switch need to be in the same subnet.

B. The switch interface connected to the router is down.

C. Host B needs to be assigned an IP address in VLAN 1.

D. The switch needs an appropriate default gateway assigned.

E. The switch interfaces need the appropriate IP addresses assigned.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Ping was successful form host B to other hosts because of intervlan routing configured on router.

But to manage switch via telnet the VLAN32 on the switch needs to be configured interface vlan32

along with ip address and its appropriate default-gateway address.

Since VLAN1 interface is already configure on switch Host A was able to telnet switch.

QUESTION NO: 67

Refer to the exhibit.

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Which switch provides the spanning-tree designated port role for the network segment that

services the printers?

A. Switch1

B. Switch2

C. Switch3

D. Switch4

Answer: C

Explanation:

Printers are connected by hubs. Decide the switch that provides the spanning-tree designated port

role between Switch3 and Switch4. They have the same priority 32768. Compare their MAC

addresses. Switch3 with a smaller MAC address will provide a designated port for printers.

QUESTION NO: 68

What is one benefit of PVST+?

A. PVST+ supports Layer 3 load balancing without loops.

B. PVST+ reduces the CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.

C. PVST+ allows the root switch location to be optimized per VLAN.

D. PVST+ automatically selects the root bridge location, to provide optimized bandwidth usage.

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Answer: C

Explanation:

The PVST+ provides Layer 2 load-balancing for the VLAN on which it runs. You can create

different logical topologies by using the VLANs on your network to ensure that all of your links are

used but that no one link is oversubscribed. Each instance of PVST+ on a VLAN has a single root

switch. This root switch propagates the spanning-tree information associated with that VLAN to all

other switches in the network. Because each switch has the same information about the network,

this process ensures that the network topology is maintained and optimized per VLAN.

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3750x_3560x/software/release/12.2_55_se

/configuration/guide/swstp.html

QUESTION NO: 69

Which three are valid modes for a switch port used as a VLAN trunk? (Choose three.)

A. transparent

B. auto

C. on

D. desirable

E. blocking

F. forwarding

Answer: B,C,D

Explanation:

These are the different types of trunk modes:

QUESTION NO: 70

Refer to Exhibit:

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How many broadcast domains are shown in the graphic assuming only the default VLAN is

configured on the switches?

A. one

B. two

C. six

D. twelve

Answer: A

Explanation:

Only router can break up broadcast domains but in this exhibit no router is used so there is only 1

broadcast domain.

For your information, there are 7 collision domains in this exhibit (6 collision domains between

hubs & switches + 1 collision between the two switches).

QUESTION NO: 71

Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking are correct? (Choose three.)

A. 802.1Q native VLAN frames are untagged by default.

B. 802.1Q trunking ports can also be secure ports.

C. 802.1Q trunks can use 10 Mb/s Ethernet interfaces.

D. 802.1Q trunks require full-duplex, point-to-point connectivity.

E. 802.1Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends.

Answer: A,C,E

Explanation:

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By default, 802.1Q trunk defined Native VLAN in order to forward unmarked frame. Switches can

forward Layer 2 frame from Native VLAN on unmarked trunks port. Receiver switches will transmit

all unmarked packets to Native VLAN. Native VLAN is the default VLAN configuration of port. Note

for the 802.1Q trunk ports between two devices, the same Native VLAN configuration is required

on both sides of the link. If the Native VLAN in 802.1Q trunk ports on same trunk link is properly

configured, it could lead to layer 2 loops. The 802.1Q trunk link transmits VLAN information

through Ethernet.

QUESTION NO: 72

Refer to the exhibit.

The output that is shown is generated at a switch. Which three statements are true? (Choose

three.)

A. All ports will be in a state of discarding, learning, or forwarding.

B. Thirty VLANs have been configured on this switch.

C. The bridge priority is lower than the default value for spanning tree.

D. All interfaces that are shown are on shared media.

E. All designated ports are in a forwarding state.

F. This switch must be the root bridge for all VLANs on this switch.

Answer: A,C,E

Explanation:

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From the output, we see that all ports are in designated role (forwarding state).

The command “show spanning-tree vlan 30 only shows us information about VLAN 30. We don’t

know how many VLAN exists in this switch ->.

The bridge priority of this switch is 24606 which is lower than the default value bridge priority

32768.

All three interfaces on this switch have the connection type “p2p”, which means Point-to-point

environment – not a shared media.

The only thing we can specify is this switch is the root bridge for VLAN 3o but we cannot

guarantee it is also the root bridge for other VLANs.

QUESTION NO: 73

Refer to the exhibit.

At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding

role?

A. Switch3, port fa0/1

B. Switch3, port fa0/12

C. Switch4, port fa0/11

D. Switch4, port fa0/2

E. Switch3, port Gi0/1

F. Switch3, port Gi0/2

Answer: C

Explanation:

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In this question, we only care about the Access Layer switches (Switch3 & 4). Switch 3 has a

lower bridge ID than Switch 4 (because the MAC of Switch3 is smaller than that of Switch4) so

both ports of Switch3 will be in forwarding state. The alternative port will surely belong to Switch4.

Switch4 will need to block one of its ports to avoid a bridging loop between the two switches. But

how does Switch4 select its blocked port? Well, the answer is based on theBPDUs it receives from

Switch3.A BPDU is superior to another if it has:

1. A lower Root Bridge ID

2. A lower path cost to the Root

3. A lower Sending Bridge ID

4. A lower Sending Port ID

These four parameters are examined in order. In this specific case, all the BPDUs sent by Switch3

have the same Root Bridge ID, the same path cost to the Root and the same Sending Bridge ID.

The only parameter left to select the best one is the Sending Port ID (Port ID = port priority + port

index). In this case the port priorities are equal because they use the default value, so Switch4 will

compare port index values, which are unique to each port on the switch, and because Fa0/12 is

inferior to Fa0/1, Switch4 will select the port connected with Fa0/1 (of Switch3) as its root port and

block the other port -> Port fa0/11 of Switch4 will be blocked (discarding role).

QUESTION NO: 74

Which term describes a spanning-tree network that has all switch ports in either the blocking or

forwarding state?

A. converged

B. redundant

C. provisioned

D. spanned

Answer: A

Explanation:

Spanning Tree Protocol convergence (Layer 2 convergence) happens when bridges and switches

have transitioned to either the forwarding or blocking state. When layer 2 is converged, root bridge

is elected and all port roles (Root, Designated and Non-Designated) in all switches are selected.

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QUESTION NO: 75

What are the possible trunking modes for a switch port? (Choose three.)

A. transparent

B. auto

C. on

D. desirable

E. client

F. forwarding

Answer: B,C,D

Explanation:

These are the different types of trunk modes:

QUESTION NO: 76

Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two.)

A. RSTP cannot operate with PVST+.

B. RSTP defines new port roles.

C. RSTP defines no new port states.

D. RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1D STP.

E. RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP.

Answer: B,E

Explanation:

When network topology changes, rapid spanning tree protocol (IEEE802.1W, referred to as RSTP)

will speed up significantly the speed to re-calculate spanning tree. RSTP not only defines the role

of other ports: alternative port and backup port, but also defines status of 3 ports: discarding

status, learning status, forwarding status.

RSTP is 802.1D standard evolution, not revolution. It retains most of the parameters, and makes

no changes.

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QUESTION NO: 77

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements are true of the interfaces on Switch1? (Choose two.)

A. Multiple devices are connected directly to FastEthernet0/1.

B. A hub is connected directly to FastEthernet0/5.

C. FastEthernet0/1 is connected to a host with multiple network interface cards.

D. FastEthernet0/5 has statically assigned MAC addresses.

E. FastEthernet0/1 is configured as a trunk link.

F. Interface FastEthernet0/2 has been disabled.

Answer: B,E

Explanation:

Carefully observe the information given after command show. Fa0/1 is connected to Switch2,

seven MAC addresses correspond to Fa0/1, and these MAC are in different VLAN. From this we

know thatFa0/1 is the trunk interface.

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From the information given by show cdp neighbors we find that there is no Fa0/5 in CDP neighbor.

However, F0/5 corresponds to two MAC addresses in the same VLAN. Thus we know that Fa0/5

is connected to a Hub.

Based on the output shown, there are multiple MAC addresses from different VLANs attached

tothe FastEthernet 0/1 interface.Only trunks are able to pass information from devices in multiple

VLANs.

QUESTION NO: 78

Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports. Assuming the default switch

configuration, which switch is elected as the root bridge for the spanning-tree instance of VLAN 1?

A. the switch with the highest MAC address

B. the switch with the lowest MAC address

C. the switch with the highest IP address

D. the switch with the lowest IP address

Answer: B

Explanation:

Each switch in your network will have a Bridge ID Priority value, more commonly referred to as a

BID. This BID is a combination of a default priority value and the switch's MAC address, with the

priority value listed first. The lowest BID will win the election process.

For example, if a Cisco switch has the default priority value of 32,768 and a MAC address of 11-

22-33-44-55-66, the BID would be 32768:11-22-33-44-55-66. Therefore, if the switch priority is left

at the default, the MAC address is the deciding factor in the root bridge election.

QUESTION NO: 79

What are three advantages of VLANs? (Choose three.)

A. VLANs establish broadcast domains in switched networks.

B. VLANs utilize packet filtering to enhance network security.

C. VLANs provide a method of conserving IP addresses in large networks.

D. VLANs provide a low-latency internetworking alternative to routed networks.

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E. VLANs allow access to network services based on department, not physical location.

F. VLANs can greatly simplify adding, moving, or changing hosts on the network.

Answer: A,E,F

Explanation:

VLAN technology is often used in practice, because it can better control layer2 broadcast to

improve network security. This makes network more flexible and scalable.

Packet filtering is a function of firewall instead of VLAN.

QUESTION NO: 80

Cisco Catalyst switches CAT1 and CAT2 have a connection between them using ports FA0/13. An

802.1Q trunk is configured between the two switches. On CAT1, VLAN 10 is chosen as native, but

on CAT2 the native VLAN is not specified.

What will happen in this scenario?

A. 802.1Q giants frames could saturate the link.

B. VLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send untagged frames.

C. A native VLAN mismatch error message will appear.

D. VLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send tagged frames.

Answer: C

Explanation:

A “native VLAN mismatch” error will appear by CDP if there is a native VLAN mismatch on an

802.1Q link. “VLAN mismatch” can cause traffic from one vlan to leak into another vlan.

QUESTION NO: 81

Refer to the exhibit.

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A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit represents

this design, with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions can be made about this

design?

A. This design will function as intended.

B. Spanning-tree will need to be used.

C. The router will not accept the addressing scheme.

D. The connection between switches should be a trunk.

E. The router interfaces must be encapsulated with the 802.1Q protocol.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Each interface on a router must be in a different network. If two interfaces are in the same

network, the router will not accept it and show error when the administrator assigns it.

QUESTION NO: 82

Refer to the exhibit.

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A technician is troubleshooting host connectivity issues on the switches. The hosts in VLANs 10

and 15 on Sw11 are unable to communicate with hosts in the same VLANs on Sw12. Hosts in the

Admin VLAN are able to communicate. The port-to-VLAN assignments are identical on the two

switches. What could be the problem?

A. The Fa0/1 port is not operational on one of the switches.

B. The link connecting the switches has not been configured as a trunk.

C. At least one port needs to be configured in VLAN 1 for VLANs 10 and 15 to be able to

communicate.

D. Port FastEthernet 0/1 needs to be configured as an access link on both switches.

E. A router is required for hosts on SW11 in VLANs 10 and 15 to communicate with hosts in the

same VLAN on Sw12.

Answer: B

Explanation:

In order for hosts in the same VLAN to communicate with each other over multiple switches, those

switches need to be configured as trunks on their connected interfaces so that they can pass

traffic from multiple VLANs.

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QUESTION NO: 83

Refer to the exhibit.

Given this output for SwitchC, what should the network administrator's next action be?

A. Check the trunk encapsulation mode for SwitchC's fa0/1 port.

B. Check the duplex mode for SwitchC's fa0/1 port.

C. Check the duplex mode for SwitchA's fa0/2 port.

D. Check the trunk encapsulation mode for SwitchA's fa0/2 port.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Here we can see that this port is configured for full duplex, so the next step would be to check the

duplex setting of the port on the other switch.A mismatched trunk encapsulation would not result in

input errors and CRC errors.

QUESTION NO: 84

Refer to the exhibit.

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A network administrator is configuring an EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2. The SW1

configuration is shown. What is the correct configuration for SW2?

A. interface FastEthernet 0/1

channel-group 1 mode active

switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q

switchport mode trunk

interface FastEthernet 0/2

channel-group 1 mode active

switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q

switchport mode trunk

B. interface FastEthernet 0/1

channel-group 2 mode auto

switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q

switchport mode trunk

interface FastEthernet 0/2

channel-group 2 mode auto

switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q

switchport mode trunk

C. interface FastEthernet 0/1

channel-group 1 mode desirable

switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q

switchport mode trunk

interface FastEthernet 0/2

channel-group 1 mode desirable

switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q

switchport mode trunk

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D. interface FastEthernet 0/1

channel-group 1 mode passive

switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q

switchport mode trunk

interface FastEthernet 0/2

channel-group 1 mode passive

switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q

switchport mode trunk

Answer: C

Explanation:

If the etherchannel was configured with mode “auto”, it was using PagP, so, we need to configure

the other switch with “desirable” mode.

PagP modes: auto | Desirable

LACP modes: active | pasive

QUESTION NO: 85

What parameter can be different on ports within an EtherChannel?

A. speed

B. DTP negotiation settings

C. trunk encapsulation

D. duplex

Answer: B

Explanation:

For an etherchannel to come up, the speed, duplex and the trunk encapsulation must be the same

on each end.

QUESTION NO: 86

Refer to the exhibit.

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What set of commands was configured on interface Fa0/3 to produce the given output?

A. interface FastEthernet 0/3

channel-group 1 mode desirable

switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q

switchport mode trunk

B. interface FastEthernet 0/3

channel-group 2 mode passive

switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q

switchport mode trunk

C. interface FastEthernet 0/3

channel-group 2 mode active

switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q

switchport mode trunk

D. interface FastEthernet 0/3

channel-group 2 mode on

switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q

switchport mode trunk

Answer: B

Explanation:

Based on the output shown, the configured channel group number was 2 and the mode used was

passive, so only choice B is correct.

QUESTION NO: 87

A network administrator creates a layer 3 EtherChannel, bundling four interfaces into channel

group 1. On what interface is the IP address configured?

A. the port-channel 1 interface

B. the highest number member interface

C. all member interfaces

D. the lowest number member interface

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Answer: A

Explanation:

To create an EtherChannel interface and assign its IP address and subnet mask, use the following

steps beginning in global configuration mode:

Command

Purpose

Step 1

Router(config)#interface port-channelchannel-number

Router(config-if)#

Creates the EtherChannel interface. You can configure up to 16 FECs and 1 GEC on the Catalyst

2948G-L3 and up to 4 GECs on the Catalyst 4908G-L3.

Step 2

Router(config-if)#ip addressip-address subnet-mask

Assigns an IP address and subnet maskto the EtherChannel interface.

Step 3

Router(config-if)#exit

Router(config)#

Exits this mode. Optionally, you can remain in interface configuration mode and enable other

supported interface commands to meet

The IP address is assigned to the port channel interface, not the underlying physical member

interfaces.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst2948gand4908g/12-

0_7_w5_15d/configuration/guide/config/ether_ch.html

Topic 3, IP addressing (IPv4 / IPv6)

QUESTION NO: 88

You have been asked to come up with a subnet mask that will allow all three web servers to be on

the same network while providing the maximum number of subnets. Which network address and

subnet mask meet this requirement?

A. 192.168.252.0 255.255.255.252

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B. 192.168.252.8 255.255.255.248

C. 192.168.252.8 255.255.255.252

D. 192.168.252.16 255.255.255.240

E. 192.168.252.16 255.255.255.252

Answer: B

Explanation:

A subnet mask of 255.255.255.248 will allow for up to 6 hosts to reside in this network. A subnet

mask of 255.255.255.252 will allow for only 2 usable IP addresses, since we cannot use the

network or broadcast address.

QUESTION NO: 89

Given an IP address 172.16.28.252 with a subnet mask of 255.255.240.0, what is the correct

network address?

A. 172.16.16.0

B. 172.16.0.0

C. 172.16.24.0

D. 172.16.28.0

Answer: A

Explanation:

For this example, the network range is 172.16.16.1 - 172.16.31.254, the network address is

172.16.16.0 and the broadcast IP address is 172.16.31.255.

QUESTION NO: 90

Which IPv6 address is the equivalent of the IPv4 interface loopback address 127.0.0.1?

A. ::1

B. ::

C. 2000::/3

D. 0::/10

Answer: A

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Explanation:

In IPv6 the loopback address is written as,::1

This is a 128bit number, with the first 127 bits being '0' and the 128th bit being '1'. It's just a single

address, so could also be written as ::1/128.

QUESTION NO: 91

You are working in a data center environment and are assigned the address range

10.188.31.0/23. You are asked to develop an IP addressing plan to allow the maximum number of

subnets with as many as 30 hosts each. Which IP address range meets these requirements?

A. 10.188.31.0/26

B. 10.188.31.0/25

C. 10.188.31.0/28

D. 10.188.31.0/27

E. 10.188.31.0/29

Answer: D

Explanation:

Each subnet has 30 hosts < 32 = 25 so we need a subnet mask which has at least 5 bit 0s -> /27.

Also the question requires the maximum number of subnets (which minimum the number of hostsper-

subnet) so /27 is the best choice.

QUESTION NO: 92

What are three features of the IPv6 protocol?

(Choose three.)

A. optional IPsec

B. autoconfiguration

C. no broadcasts

D. complicated header

E. plug-and-play

F. checksums

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Answer: B,C,E

Explanation:

An important feature of IPv6 is that it allows plug and play option to the network devices by

allowing them to configure themselves independently. It is possible to plug a node into an IPv6

network without requiring any human intervention. This feature was critical to allow network

connectivity to an increasing number of mobile devices.This is accomplished by autoconfiguration.

IPv6 does not implement traditional IP broadcast, i.e. the transmission of a packet to all hosts on

the attached link using a special broadcast address, and therefore does not define broadcast

addresses. In IPv6, the same result can be achieved by sending a packet to the link-local all

nodes multicast group at address ff02::1, which is analogous to IPv4 multicast to address

224.0.0.1.

QUESTION NO: 93

Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router?

A. ipv6 local

B. ipv6 host

C. ipv6 unicast-routing

D. ipv6 neighbor

Answer: C

Explanation:

To enable IPv6 routing on the Cisco router use the following command:

ipv6 unicast-routing

If this command is not recognized, your version of IOS does not support IPv6.

QUESTION NO: 94

What is known as "one-to-nearest" addressing in IPv6?

A. global unicast

B. anycast

C. multicast

D. unspecified address

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Answer: B

Explanation:

IPv6 Anycast addresses are used for one-to-nearest communication, meaning an Anycast address

is used by a device to send data to one specific recipient (interface) that is the closest out of a

group of recipients (interfaces).

QUESTION NO: 95

What is the first 24 bits in a MAC address called?

A. NIC

B. BIA

C. OUI

D. VAI

Answer: C

Explanation:

An Organizationally Unique Identifier (OUI) is a 24-bit number that uniquely identifies a vendor,

manufacturer, or other organization globally or worldwide.

They are used as the first 24 nits of the MAC address to uniquely identify a particular piece of

equipment.

QUESTION NO: 96

Refer to the exhibit.

Which subnet mask will place all hosts on Network B in the same subnet with the least amount of

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wasted addresses?

A. 255.255.255.0

B. 255.255.254.0

C. 255.255.252.0

D. 255.255.248.0

Answer: B

Explanation:

310 hosts < 512 = 29-> We need a subnet mask of 9 bits 0 -> 1111 1111.1111 1111.1111

1110.0000 0000 -> 255.255.254.0

QUESTION NO: 97

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the most appropriate summarization for these routes?

A. 10.0.0.0 /21

B. 10.0.0.0 /22

C. 10.0.0.0 /23

D. 10.0.0.0 /24

Answer: B

Explanation:

The 10.0.0.0/22 subnet mask will include the 10.0.0.0, 10.0.1.0, 10.0.2.0, and 10.0.3.0 networks,

and only those four networks.

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QUESTION NO: 98

Which two are features of IPv6? (Choose two.)

A. anycast

B. broadcast

C. multicast

D. podcast

E. allcast

Answer: A,C

Explanation:

IPv6 addresses are classified by the primary addressing and routing methodologies common in

networking:unicast addressing, anycast addressing, and multicast addressing.

QUESTION NO: 99

Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two.)

A. There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.

B. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.

C. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.

D. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.

E. Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.

Answer: B,C

Explanation:

Reference: IPv6 Addressing at a Glance – Cisco PDF

QUESTION NO: 100

Refer to the exhibit.

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A new subnet with 60 hosts has been added to the network. Which subnet address should this

network use to provide enough usable addresses while wasting the fewest addresses?

A. 192.168.1.56/26

B. 192.168.1.56/27

C. 192.168.1.64/26

D. 192.168.1.64/27

Answer: C

Explanation:

A subnet with 60 host is 2*2*2*2*2*2 = 64 -2 == 62

6 bits needed for hosts part. Therefore subnet bits are 2 bits (8-6) in fourth octet.

8bits+ 8bits+ 8bits + 2bits = /26

/26 bits subnet is 24bits + 11000000 = 24bits + 192

256 – 192 = 64

0 -63

64 – 127

QUESTION NO: 101

Refer to the exhibit.

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All of the routers in the network are configured with the ip subnet-zero command. Which network

addresses should be used for Link A and Network A? (Choose two.)

A. Network A - 172.16.3.48/26

B. Network A - 172.16.3.128/25

C. Network A - 172.16.3.192/26

D. Link A - 172.16.3.0/30

E. Link A - 172.16.3.40/30

F. Link A - 172.16.3.112/30

Answer: B,D

Explanation:

Only a /30 is needed for the point to point link and sine the use of the ip subnet-zero was used,

172.16.3.0/30 is valid.Also, a /25 is required for 120 hosts and again 172.16.3.128/25 is the best,

valid option.

QUESTION NO: 102

The network administrator needs to address seven LANs. RIP version 1 is the only routing

protocol in use on the network and subnet 0 is not being used. What is the maximum number of

usable IP addresses that can be supported on each LAN if the organization is using one class C

address block?

A. 8

B. 6

C. 30

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D. 32

E. 14

F. 16

Answer: C

Explanation:

Since there is one class C network thatmeans 256 total IP addresses.Sincewe need 7 LAN blocks

and we cannot use the first one (subnet 0) we take 256/8=32 hosts.However, since we need to

reserve the network and broadcast addresses for each of these subnets, only 30 total IP

addresses are usable.

QUESTION NO: 103

What will happen if a private IP address is assigned to a public interface connected to an ISP?

A. Addresses in a private range will not be routed on the Internet backbone.

B. Only the ISP router will have the capability to access the public network.

C. The NAT process will be used to translate this address to a valid IP address.

D. A conflict of IP addresses happens, because other public routers can use the same range.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Private RFC 1918 IP addresses are meant to be used by organizations locally withintheir own

network only, and cannot be used globally for Internet use.

QUESTION NO: 104

Which two benefits are provided by using a hierarchical addressing network addressing scheme?

(Choose two.)

A. reduces routing table entries

B. auto-negotiation of media rates

C. efficient utilization of MAC addresses

D. dedicated communications between devices

E. ease of management and troubleshooting

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Answer: A,E

Explanation:

Here are some of the benefits of hierarchical addressing:

Reference: http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=174107

QUESTION NO: 105

What is the alternative notation for the IPv6 address

B514:82C3:0000:0000:0029:EC7A:0000:EC72?

A. B514 : 82C3 : 0029 : EC7A : EC72

B. B514 : 82C3 :: 0029 : EC7A : EC72

C. B514 : 82C3 : 0029 :: EC7A : 0000 : EC72

D. B514 : 82C3 :: 0029 : EC7A : 0 : EC72

Answer: D

Explanation:

There are two ways that an IPv6 address can be additionally compressed: compressing leading

zeros and substituting a group of consecutive zeros with a single double colon (::). Both of these

can be used in any number of combinations to notate the same address. It is important to note that

the double colon (::) can only be used once within asingle IPv6 address notation.So, the extra 0’s

can only be compressed once.

QUESTION NO: 106

Refer to the diagram.

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All hosts have connectivity with one another. Which statements describe the addressing scheme

that is in use in the network? (Choose three.)

A. The subnet mask in use is 255.255.255.192.

B. The subnet mask in use is 255.255.255.128.

C. The IP address 172.16.1.25 can be assigned to hosts in VLAN1

D. The IP address 172.16.1.205 can be assigned to hosts in VLAN1

E. The LAN interface of the router is configured with one IP address.

F. The LAN interface of the router is configured with multiple IP addresses.

Answer: B,C,F

Explanation:

The subnet mask in use is 255.255.255.128:This is subnet mask will support up to 126 hosts,

which is needed.

The IP address 172.16.1.25 canbe assigned to hosts in VLAN1:The usable host range in this

subnet is 172.16.1.1-172.16.1.126

The LAN interface of the router is configured with multiple IP addresses:The router will need 2

subinterfaces for the single physical interface, one with an IP address that belongs in each VLAN.

QUESTION NO: 107

Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two.)

A. Global addresses start with 2000::/3.

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B. Link-local addresses start with FE00:/12.

C. Link-local addresses start with FF00::/10.

D. There is only one loopback address and it is ::1.

E. If a global address is assigned to an interface, then that is the only allowable address for the

interface.

Answer: A,D

Explanation:

Below is the list of common kinds of IPv6 addresses:

QUESTION NO: 108

The network administrator has been asked to give reasons for moving from IPv4 to IPv6. What are

two valid reasons for adopting IPv6 over IPv4? (Choose two.)

A. no broadcast

B. change of source address in the IPv6 header

C. change of destination address in the IPv6 header

D. Telnet access does not require a password

E. autoconfiguration

F. NAT

Answer: A,E

Explanation:

IPv6 does not use broadcasts, and autoconfiguration is a feature of IPV6 that allows for hosts to

automatically obtain an IPv6 address.

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QUESTION NO: 109

An administrator must assign static IP addresses to the servers in a network. For network

192.168.20.24/29, the router is assigned the first usable host address while the sales server is

given the last usable host address. Which of the following should be entered into the IP properties

box for the sales server?

A. IP address: 192.168.20.14

Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248

Default Gateway: 192.168.20.9

B. IP address: 192.168.20.254

Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.0

Default Gateway: 192.168.20.1

C. IP address: 192.168.20.30

Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248

Default Gateway: 192.168.20.25

D. IP address: 192.168.20.30

Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240

Default Gateway: 192.168.20.17

E. IP address: 192.168.20.30

Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240

Default Gateway: 192.168.20.25

Answer: C

Explanation:

For the 192.168.20.24/29 network, the usable hosts are 192.168.24.25 (router) – 192.168.24.30

(used for the sales server).

QUESTION NO: 110

Which subnet mask would be appropriate for a network address range to be subnetted for up to

eight LANs, with each LAN containing 5 to 26 hosts?

A. 0.0.0.240

B. 255.255.255.252

C. 255.255.255.0

D. 255.255.255.224

E. 255.255.255.240

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Answer: D

Explanation:

For a class C network, a mask of 255.255.255.224 will allow for up to 8 networks with 32 IP

addresses each (30 usable).

QUESTION NO: 111

How many bits are contained in each field of an IPv6 address?

A. 24

B. 4

C. 8

D. 16

Answer: D

Explanation:

An IPv6 address is represented as eight groups of four hexadecimal digits, each group

representing 16 bits (two octets). The groups are separated by colons (:). An example of an IPv6

address is 2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334.

QUESTION NO: 112

What are three approaches that are used when migrating from an IPv4 addressing scheme to an

IPv6 scheme. (Choose three.)

A. enable dual-stack routing

B. configure IPv6 directly

C. configure IPv4 tunnels between IPv6 islands

D. use proxying and translation to translate IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets

E. statically map IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses

F. use DHCPv6 to map IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses

Answer: A,C,D

Explanation:

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Several methods are used terms of migration including tunneling, translators, and dual stack.

Tunnels are used to carry one protocol inside another, while translators simply translate IPv6

packets into IPv4 packets.Dual stack uses a combination of both native IPv4 and IPv6. With dual

stack, devices are able to run IPv4 and IPv6 together and if IPv6 communication is possible that is

the preferred protocol. Hosts can simultaneously reach IPv4 and IPv6 content.

QUESTION NO: 113

Refer to the exhibit.

In this VLSM addressing scheme, what summary address would be sent from router A?

A. 172.16.0.0 /16

B. 172.16.0.0 /20

C. 172.16.0.0 /24

D. 172.32.0.0 /16

E. 172.32.0.0 /17

F. 172.64.0.0 /16

Answer: A

Explanation:

Router A receives 3 subnets: 172.16.64.0/18, 172.16.32.0/24 and 172.16.128.0/18.

All these 3 subnets have the same form of 172.16.x.x so our summarized subnet must be also in

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that form -> Only A, B or .

The smallest subnet mask of these 3 subnets is /18 so our summarized subnet must also have its

subnet mask equal or smaller than /18.

-> Only answer A has these 2 conditions ->.

QUESTION NO: 114

How is an EUI-64 format interface ID created from a 48-bit MAC address?

A. by appending 0xFF to the MAC address

B. by prefixing the MAC address with 0xFFEE

C. by prefixing the MAC address with 0xFF and appending 0xFF to it

D. by inserting 0xFFFE between the upper three bytes and the lower three bytes of the MAC

address

E. by prefixing the MAC address with 0xF and inserting 0xF after each of its first three bytes

Answer: D

Explanation:

The modified EUI-64 format interface identifier is derived from the 48-bit link-layer (MAC) address

by inserting the hexadecimal number FFFE between the upper three bytes (OUI field) and the

lower three bytes (serial number) of the link layer address.

QUESTION NO: 115

Refer to the exhibit.

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What is the most efficient summarization that R1 can use to advertise its networks to R2?

A. 172.1.0.0/22

B. 172.1.0.0/21

C. 172.1.4.0/22

D. 172.1.4.0/24

172.1.5.0/24

172.1.6.0/24

172.1.7.0/24

E. 172.1.4.0/25

172.1.4.128/25

172.1.5.0/24

172.1.6.0/24

172.1.7.0/24

Answer: C

Explanation:

The 172.1.4.0/22 subnet encompasses all routes from the IP range 172.1.4.0 – 172.1.7.255.

QUESTION NO: 116

Which option is a valid IPv6 address?

A. 2001:0000:130F::099a::12a

B. 2002:7654:A1AD:61:81AF:CCC1

C. FEC0:ABCD:WXYZ:0067::2A4

D. 2004:1:25A4:886F::1

Answer: D

Explanation:

An IPv6 address is represented as eight groups of four hexadecimal digits, each group

representing 16 bits (two octets). The groups are separated by colons (:). An example of an IPv6

address is 2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334.The leading 0’s in a group can be

collapsed using ::, but this can only be done once in an IP address.

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QUESTION NO: 117

Which three are characteristics of an IPv6 anycast address? (Choose three.)

A. one-to-many communication model

B. one-to-nearest communication model

C. any-to-many communication model

D. a unique IPv6 address for each device in the group

E. the same address for multiple devices in the group

F. delivery of packets to the group interface that is closest to the sending device

Answer: B,E,F

Explanation:

A new address type made specifically for IPv6 is called the Anycast Address. These IPv6

addresses are global addresses, these addresses can be assigned to more than one interface

unlike an IPv6 unicast address. Anycast is designed to send a packet to the nearest interface that

is apart of that anycast group.

The sender creates a packet and forwards the packet to the anycast address as the destination

address which goes to the nearest router. The nearest router or interface is found by using the

metric of a routing protocol currently running on the network. However in a LAN setting the nearest

interface is found depending on the order the neighbors were learned. The anycast packet in a

LAN setting forwards the packet to the neighbor it learned about first.

QUESTION NO: 118

A national retail chain needs to design an IP addressing scheme to support a nationwide network.

The company needs a minimum of 300 sub-networks and a maximum of 50 host addresses per

subnet. Working with only one Class B address, which of the following subnet masks will support

an appropriate addressing scheme? (Choose two.)

A. 255.255.255.0

B. 255.255.255.128

C. 255.255.252.0

D. 255.255.255.224

E. 255.255.255.192

F. 255.255.248.0

Answer: B,E

Explanation:

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Subnetting is used to break the network into smaller more efficient subnets to prevent excessive

rates of Ethernet packet collision in a large network. Such subnets can be arranged hierarchically,

with the organization's network address space (see also Autonomous System) partitioned into a

tree-like structure. Routers are used to manage traffic and constitute borders between subnets.

A routing prefix is the sequence of leading bits of an IP address that precede the portion of the

address used as host identifier. In IPv4 networks, the routing prefix is often expressed as a

"subnet mask", which is a bit mask covering the number of bits used in the prefix. An IPv4 subnet

mask is frequently expressed in quad-dotted decimal representation, e.g., 255.255.255.0 is the

subnet mask for the 192.168.1.0 network with a 24-bit routing prefix (192.168.1.0/24).

QUESTION NO: 119

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator is adding two new hosts to SwitchA. Which three values could be used for

the configuration of these hosts? (Choose three.)

A. host A IP address: 192.168.1.79

B. host A IP address: 192.168.1.64

C. host A default gateway: 192.168.1.78

D. host B IP address: 192.168.1.128

E. host B default gateway: 192.168.1.129

F. host B IP address: 192.168.1.190

Answer: A,C,F

Explanation:

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It’s a “router-on-a-stick” configuration. Which means each host in the VLAN must corresponds with

the VLAN configured on the sub-interfaces.

VLAN 10 is configured on fa0/0.10 and VLAN 20 on fa0/0.20. So each hosts in VLAN 10 must use

fa0/0.10 IP address as their default gateway, each hosts must also be in the same subnet as

fa0/0.10 IP – same with hosts in VLAN 20.

So find out the usable IP addresses on each sub-interfaces – for 192.168.1.78 /27: 192.168.1.65 –

.94 and for 192.168.1.130 /26: 192.168.1.128 – .190.

Host A (using port 6 – VLAN 10) must use IP 192.168.1.79, default gateway 192.168.1.78.

Host B (using port 9 – VLAN 20) must use IP 192.168.1.190, default gateway 192.168.1.130.

QUESTION NO: 120

Which IPv6 address is the all-router multicast group?

A. FF02::1

B. FF02::2

C. FF02::3

D. FF02::4

Answer: B

Explanation:

Well-known IPv6 multicast addresses:

Address

Description

ff02::1

All nodes on the local network segment

ff02::2

All routers on the local network segment

QUESTION NO: 121

Refer to the exhibit.

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Which address range efficiently summarizes the routing table of the addresses for router Main?

A. 172.16.0.0./21

B. 172.16.0.0./20

C. 172.16.0.0./16

D. 172.16.0.0/18

Answer: B

Explanation:

The 172.16.0.0./20 network is the best option as it includes all networks from 172.16.0.0 –

172.16.16.0 and does it more efficientlythan the /16 and /18 subnets.The /21 subnet will not

include all the other subnets in this one single summarized address.

QUESTION NO: 122

Which IPv6 address is valid?

A. 2001:0db8:0000:130F:0000:0000:08GC:140B

B. 2001:0db8:0:130H::87C:140B

C. 2031::130F::9C0:876A:130B

D. 2031:0:130F::9C0:876A:130B

Answer: D

Explanation:

An IPv6 address is represented as eight groups of four hexadecimal digits, each group

representing 16 bits (two octets). The groups are separated by colons (:). An example of an IPv6

address is 2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334.The leading 0’s in a group can be

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collapsed using ::, but this can only be done once in an IP address.

QUESTION NO: 123

Which command can you use to manually assign a static IPv6 address to a router interface?

A. ipv6 autoconfig 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64

B. ipv6 address 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64

C. ipv6 address PREFIX_1 ::1/64

D. ipv6 autoconfig

Answer: B

Explanation:

To assign an IPv6 address to an interface, use the “ipv6 address” command and specify the IP

address you wish to use.

QUESTION NO: 124

Which of these represents an IPv6 link-local address?

A. FE80::380e:611a:e14f:3d69

B. FE81::280f:512b:e14f:3d69

C. FEFE:0345:5f1b::e14d:3d69

D. FE08::280e:611:a:f14f:3d69

Answer: A

Explanation:

In the Internet Protocol Version 6 (IPv6), the address block fe80::/10 has been reserved for linklocal

unicast addressing. The actual link local addresses are assigned with the prefix fe80::/64.

They may be assigned by automatic (stateless) or stateful (e.g. manual) mechanisms.

QUESTION NO: 125

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The network administrator is asked to configure 113 point-to-point links. Which IP addressing

scheme defines the address range and subnet mask that meet the requirement and waste the

fewest subnet and host addresses?

A. 10.10.0.0/16 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252

B. 10.10.0.0/18 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252

C. 10.10.1.0/24 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252

D. 10.10.0.0/23 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252

E. 10.10.1.0/25 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252

Answer: D

Explanation:

We need 113 point-to-point links which equal to 113 sub-networks < 128 so we need to borrow 7

bits (because 2^7 = 128).

The network used for point-to-point connection should be /30.

So our initial network should be 30 – 7 = 23.

So 10.10.0.0/23 is the correct answer.

You can understand it more clearly when writing it in binary form:

/23 = 1111 1111.1111 1110.0000 0000

/30 = 1111 1111.1111 1111.1111 1100 (borrow 7 bits)

Topic 4, IP Routing Technologies

QUESTION NO: 126 DRAG DROP

Drag each definition on the left to the matching term on the right.

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Answer:

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 127 DRAG DROP

Drag the Cisco default administrative distance to the appropriate routing protocol or route. (Not all

options are used.)

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Answer:

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 128 DRAG DROP

Routing has been configured on the local router with these commands:

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Local(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1

Local(config)# ip route 10.1.0.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.2

Local(config)# ip route 10.1.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.3.3

Drag each destination IP address on the left to its correct next hop address on the right.

Answer:

Explanation:

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If we have many entries matching for next hop ip address then the router will choose the one with

most specific path to send the packet. This is called the “longest match” rule, the route with the

most bits in the mask set to “1 will be chosen to route packet.

QUESTION NO: 129

Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers?

A. Bandwidth

B. Bandwidth and Delay

C. Bandwidth, Delay, and MTU

D. Bandwidth, MTU, Reliability, Delay, and Load

Answer: A

Explanation:

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The well-known formula to calculate OSPF cost is

Cost = 108/ Bandwidth

QUESTION NO: 130

Why do large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design? (Choose three.)

A. to decrease latency by increasing bandwidth

B. to reduce routing overhead

C. to speed up convergence

D. to confine network instability to single areas of the network

E. to reduce the complexity of router configuration

F. to lower costs by replacing routers with distribution layer switches

Answer: B,C,D

Explanation:

OSPF implements a two-tier hierarchical routing model that uses a core or backbone tier known as

area zero (0). Attached to that backbone via area border routers (ABRs) are anumber of

secondary tier areas.The hierarchical approach is used to achieve the following:

•

Rapid convergence because of link and/or switch failures

•

Deterministic traffic recovery

•

Scalable and manageable routing hierarchy, reduced routing overhead.

QUESTION NO: 131

Which command encrypts all plaintext passwords?

A. Router# service password-encryption

B. Router(config)# password-encryption

C. Router(config)# service password-encryption

D. Router# password-encryption

Answer: C

Explanation:

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Command

The “service password-encryption” command allows you to encrypt all passwords on your router

so they cannot be easily guessed from your running-config. This command uses a very weak

encryption because the router has to be very quickly decode the passwords for its operation.

It is meant to prevent someone from looking over your shoulder and seeing the password, that is

all.This is configured in global configuration mode.

QUESTION NO: 132

Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing? (Choose two.)

A. Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases.

B. Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing table.

C. Route summarization is computed automatically by the router.

D. Routing tables adapt automatically to topology changes.

E. An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables, using automatic updates.

F. Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors.

G. Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links.

Answer: B,G

Explanation:

Since static routing is a manual process, it can be argued that it is more secure (and more prone

to human errors) since the network administrator will need to make changesto the routing table

directly.Also, in stub networks where there is only a single uplink connection, the load is reduced

as stub routers just need a single static default route, instead of many routes that all have the

same next hop IP address.

QUESTION NO: 133

A network administrator needs to allow only one Telnet connection to a router. For anyone viewing

the configuration and issuing the show run command, the password for Telnet access should be

encrypted. Which set of commands will accomplish this task?

A. service password-encryption

access-list 1 permit 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255

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line vty 0 4

password cisco

access-class 1

B. enable password secret

line vty 0

password cisco

C. service password-encryption

line vty 1

password cisco

D. service password-encryption

line vty 0 4

password cisco

Answer: C

Explanation:

Only one VTY connection is allowed which is exactly what's requested.

Incorrect answer: command.

line vty0 4

would enable all 5 vty connections.

QUESTION NO: 134

Refer to the exhibit.

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The speed of all serial links is E1 and the speed of all Ethernet links is 100 Mb/s. A static route will

be established on the Manchester router to direct traffic toward the Internet over the most direct

path available. What configuration on the Manchester router will establish a route toward the

Internet for traffic that originates from workstations on the Manchester LAN?

A. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.100.2

B. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 128.107.1.1

C. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.252 128.107.1.1

D. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.100.1

E. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.100.2

F. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 172.16.100.2

Answer: E

Explanation:

We use default routing to send packets with a remote destination network not in the routing table

to the next-hop router. You should generally only use default routing on stub networks—those with

only one exit path out of the network.

According to exhibit, all traffic towards Internet that originates from workstations should forward to

Router R1.

Syntax for default route is:

ip route <Remote_Network> <Netmask> <Next_Hop_Address>.

QUESTION NO: 135

Refer to the exhibit.

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The network administrator must establish a route by which London workstations can forward traffic

to the Manchester workstations. What is the simplest way to accomplish this?

A. Configure a dynamic routing protocol on London to advertise all routes to Manchester.

B. Configure a dynamic routing protocol on London to advertise summarized routes to

Manchester.

C. Configure a dynamic routing protocol on Manchester to advertise a default route to the London

router.

D. Configure a static default route on London with a next hop of 10.1.1.1.

E. Configure a static route on London to direct all traffic destined for 172.16.0.0/22 to 10.1.1.2.

F. Configure Manchester to advertise a static default route to London.

Answer: E

Explanation:

This static route will allow for communication to the Manchester workstations and it is better to use

this more specific route than a default route as traffic destined to the Internet will then not go out

the London Internet connection.

QUESTION NO: 136

Refer to the exhibit.

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The network administrator requires easy configuration options and minimal routing protocol traffic.

What two options provide adequate routing table information for traffic that passes between the

two routers and satisfy the requests of the network administrator? (Choose two.)

A. a dynamic routing protocol on InternetRouter to advertise all routes to CentralRouter.

B. a dynamic routing protocol on InternetRouter to advertise summarized routes to CentralRouter.

C. a static route on InternetRouter to direct traffic that is destined for 172.16.0.0/16 to

CentralRouter.

D. a dynamic routing protocol on CentralRouter to advertise all routes to InternetRouter.

E. a dynamic routing protocol on CentralRouter to advertise summarized routes to InternetRouter.

F. a static, default route on CentralRouter that directs traffic to InternetRouter.

Answer: C,F

Explanation:

The use of static routes will provide the necessary information for connectivity while producing no

routing traffic overhead.

QUESTION NO: 137

What is the effect of using the service password-encryption command?

A. Only the enable password will be encrypted.

B. Only the enable secret password will be encrypted.

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C. Only passwords configured after the command has been entered will be encrypted.

D. It will encrypt the secret password and remove the enable secret password from the

configuration.

E. It will encrypt all current and future passwords.

Answer: E

Explanation:

Enable vty, console, AUX passwords are configured on the Cisco device. Use the show run

command to show most passwords in clear text. If the service password-encryption is used, all the

passwords are encrypted. As a result, the security of device access is improved.

QUESTION NO: 138

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the effect of the configuration that is shown?

A. It configures SSH globally for all logins.

B. It tells the router or switch to try to establish an SSh connection first and if that fails to use

Telnet.

C. It configures the virtual terminal lines with the password 030752180500.

D. It configures a Cisco network device to use the SSH protocol on incoming communications via

the virtual terminal ports.

E. It allows seven failed login attempts before the VTY lines are temporarily shutdown.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Secure Shell (SSH) is a protocol which provides a secure remote access connection to network

devices. Communication between the client and server is encrypted in both SSH version 1 and

SSH version 2.If you want to prevent non-SSH connections, add the “transport input ssh”

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command under the lines to limit the router to SSH connections only. Straight (non-SSH) Telnets

are refused.

Reference:www.cisco.com/warp/public/707/ssh.shtml

QUESTION NO: 139

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the reason that the interface status is "administratively down, line protocol down"?

A. There is no encapsulation type configured.

B. There is a mismatch in encapsulation types.

C. The interface is not receiving any keepalives.

D. The interface has been configured with the shutdown command.

E. The interface needs to be configured as a DTE device.

F. The wrong type of cable is connected to the interface.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Interfaces can be enabled or disabled with shutdown/no shutdown command. If you interface is

down, it will display administratively down status. You can bring up an interface having

administratively down interface using no shutdown command.

QUESTION NO: 140

Refer to the exhibit.

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When running OSPF, what would cause router A not to form an adjacency with router B?

A. The loopback addresses are on different subnets.

B. The values of the dead timers on the routers are different.

C. Route summarization is enabled on both routers.

D. The process identifier on router A is different than the process identifier on router B.

Answer: B

Explanation:

To form an adjacency (become neighbor), router A & B must have the same Hello interval, Dead

interval and AREA numbers

QUESTION NO: 141

A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One

route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a

metric of 782. The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. Which route or routes will the router

install in the routing table?

A. the OSPF route

B. the EIGRP route

C. the RIPv2 route

D. all three routes

E. the OSPF and RIPv2 routes

Answer: B

Explanation:

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Explanation:

When one route is advertised by more than one routing protocol, the router will choose to use the

routing protocol which has lowest Administrative Distance. The Administrative Distances of

popular routing protocols are listed below:

QUESTION NO: 142

Refer to the exhibit.

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The company uses EIGRP as the routing protocol. What path will packets take from a host on the

192.168.10.192/26 network to a host on the LAN attached to router R1?

A. The path of the packets will be R3 to R2 to R1.

B. The path of the packets will be R3 to R1 to R2.

C. The path of the packets will be both R3 to R2 to R1 AND R3 to R1.

D. The path of the packets will be R3 to R1.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Host on the LAN attached to router R1 belongs to 192.168.10.64/26 subnet. From the output of

the routing table of R3 we learn this network can be reach via 192.168.10.9, which is an IP

address in 192.168.10.8/30 network (the network between R1 & R3) -> packets destined for

192.168.10.64 will be routed from R3 -> R1 -> LAN on R1.

QUESTION NO: 143

A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP problem on a router and needs to confirm

the IP addresses of the devices with which the router has established adjacency. The retransmit

interval and the queue counts for the adjacent routers also need to be checked. What command

will display the required information?

A. Router# show ip eigrp adjacency

B. Router# show ip eigrp topology

C. Router# show ip eigrp interfaces

D. Router# show ip eigrp neighbors

Answer: D

Explanation:

Below is an example of the show ip eigrp neighbors command. The retransmit interval (Smooth

Round Trip Timer – SRTT) and the queue counts (Q count, which shows the number of queued

EIGRP packets) for the adjacent routers are listed:

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QUESTION NO: 144

Refer to the graphic.

R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3. What are possible reasons for

this problem? (Choose two.)

A. All of the routers need to be configured for backbone Area 1.

B. R1 and R2 are the DR and BDR, so OSPF will not establish neighbor adjacency with R3.

C. A static route has been configured from R1 to R3 and prevents the neighbor adjacency from

being established.

D. The hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3.

E. EIGRP is also configured on these routers with a lower administrative distance.

F. R1 and R3 are configured in different areas.

Answer: D,F

Explanation:

This question is to examine the conditions for OSPF to create neighborhood.

So as to make the two routers become neighbors, each router must be matched with the following

items:

1. The area ID and its types;

2. Hello and failure time interval timer;

3. OSPF Password (Optional).

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QUESTION NO: 145

What is a global command?

A. a command that is set once and affects the entire router

B. a command that is implemented in all foreign and domestic IOS versions

C. a command that is universal in application and supports all protocols

D. a command that is available in every release of IOS, regardless of the version or deployment

status

E. a command that can be entered in any configuration mode

Answer: A

Explanation:

When you enter global configuration mode and enter a command, it is applied to the running

configuration file that is currently running in ram.The configuration of a global command affects the

entire router.An example of a global command is one used for the hostname of the router.

QUESTION NO: 146

Refer to the exhibit.

When running EIGRP, what is required for RouterA to exchange routing updates with RouterC?

A. AS numbers must be changed to match on all the routers

B. Loopback interfaces must be configured so a DR is elected

C. The no auto-summary command is needed on Router A and Router C

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D. Router B needs to have two network statements, one for each connected network

Answer: A

Explanation:

This question is to examine the understanding of the interaction between EIGRP routers.

The following information must be matched so as to create neighborhood.

EIGRP routers to establish, must match the following information:

1. AS Number;

2. K value.

QUESTION NO: 147

A Cisco router is booting and has just completed the POST process. It is now ready to find and

load an IOS image. What function does the router perform next?

A. It checks the configuration register.

B. It attempts to boot from a TFTP server.

C. It loads the first image file in flash memory.

D. It inspects the configuration file in NVRAM for boot instructions.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Default (normal) Boot Sequence

Power on Router - Router does POST - Bootstrap starts IOS load - Check configuration registerto

see what mode the router should boot up in (usually 0x2102 to read startup-config in NVRAM / or

0x2142 to start in "setup-mode") - check the startup-config file in NVRAM for boot-system

commands - load IOS from Flash.

QUESTION NO: 148

Refer to the exhibit.

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What is the meaning of the output MTU 1500 bytes?

A. The maximum number of bytes that can traverse this interface per second is 1500.

B. The minimum segment size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.

C. The maximum segment size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.

D. The minimum packet size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.

E. The maximum packet size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.

F. The maximum frame size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.

Answer: E

Explanation:

The Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU) defines the maximum Layer 3 packet (in bytes) that can

be transmitted out the interface.

QUESTION NO: 149

On a corporate network, hosts on the same VLAN can communicate with each other, but they are

unable to communicate with hosts on different VLANs. What is needed to allow communication

between the VLANs?

A. a router with subinterfaces configured on the physical interface that is connected to the switch

B. a router with an IP address on the physical interface connected to the switch

C. a switch with an access link that is configured between the switches

D. a switch with a trunk link that is configured between the switches

Answer: A

Explanation:

Different VLANs can't communicate with each other, they can communicate with the help of

Layer3 router. Hence, it is needed to connect a router to a switch, then make the sub-interface on

the router to connect to the switch, establishing Trunking links to achieve communications of

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devices which belong to different VLANs.

When using VLANs in networks that have multiple interconnected switches, you need to use

VLAN trunking between the switches. With VLAN trunking, the switches tag each frame sent

between switches so that the receiving switch knows to what VLAN the frame belongs. End user

devices connect to switch ports that provide simple connectivity to a single VLAN each. The

attached devices are unaware of any VLAN structure.

By default, only hosts that are members of the same VLAN can communicate. To change this and

allow inter-VLAN communication, you need a router or a layer 3 switch.

Here is the example of configuring the router for inter-vlan communication

RouterA(config)#int f0/0.1

RouterA(config-subif)#encapsulation ?

dot1Q IEEE 802.1Q Virtual LAN

RouterA(config-subif)#encapsulation dot1Q or isl VLAN ID

RouterA(config-subif)# ip address x.x.x.x y.y.y.y

QUESTION NO: 150

Which command displays CPU utilization?

A. show protocols

B. show process

C. show system

D. show version

Answer: B

Explanation:

The “show process” (in fact, the full command is “show processes”) command gives us lots of

information about each process but in fact it is not easy to read. Below shows the output of this

command (some next pages are omitted).

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A more friendly way to check the CPU utilization is the command “show processes cpu history”, in

which the total CPU usage on the router over a period of time: one minute, one hour, and 72 hours

are clearly shown:

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+ The Y-axis of the graph is the CPU utilization.

+ The X-axis of the graph is the increment within the period displayed in the graph.

For example, from the last graph (last 72 hours) we learn that the highest CPU utilization within 72

hours is 37% about six hours ago.

QUESTION NO: 151

What two things will a router do when running a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two.)

A. Send periodic updates regardless of topology changes.

B. Send entire routing table to all routers in the routing domain.

C. Use the shortest-path algorithm to the determine best path.

D. Update the routing table based on updates from their neighbors.

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E. Maintain the topology of the entire network in its database.

Answer: A,D

Explanation:

Distance means how far and Vector means in which direction. Distance Vector routing protocols

pass periodic copies of routing table to neighbor routers and accumulate distance vectors. In

distance vector routing protocols, routers discover the best path to destination from each neighbor.

The routing updates proceed step by step from router to router.

QUESTION NO: 152

Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?

A. show ip ospf link-state

B. show ip ospf lsa database

C. show ip ospf neighbors

D. show ip ospf database

Answer: D

Explanation:

The “show ip ospf database” command displays the link states.Here is an example:

Here is the lsa database on R2.

R2#show ip ospf database

OSPF Router with ID (2.2.2.2) (Process ID 1)

Router Link States (Area 0)

Link ID ADV Router Age Seq# Checksum Link count

2.2.2.2 2.2.2.2 793 0x80000003 0x004F85 2

10.4.4.4 10.4.4.4 776 0x80000004 0x005643 1

111.111.111.111 111.111.111.111 755 0x80000005 0x0059CA 2

133.133.133.133 133.133.133.133 775 0x80000005 0x00B5B1 2

Net Link States (Area 0)

Link ID ADV Router Age Seq# Checksum

10.1.1.1 111.111.111.111 794 0x80000001 0x001E8B

10.2.2.3 133.133.133.133 812 0x80000001 0x004BA9

10.4.4.1 111.111.111.111 755 0x80000001 0x007F16

10.4.4.3 133.133.133.133 775 0x80000001 0x00C31F

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QUESTION NO: 153

Refer to the exhibit.

The technician wants to upload a new IOS in the router while keeping the existing IOS. What is the

maximum size of an IOS file that could be loaded if the original IOS is also kept in flash?

A. 3 MB

B. 4 MB

C. 5 MB

D. 7 MB

E. 8 MB

Answer: B

Explanation:

In this example, there are a total of 8 MB, but 3.8 are being used already, so another file as large

as 4MB can be loaded in addition to the original file.

QUESTION NO: 154

Refer to the exhibit.

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The two exhibited devices are the only Cisco devices on the network. The serial network between

the two devices has a mask of 255.255.255.252. Given the output that is shown, what three

statements are true of these devices? (Choose three.)

A. The Manchester serial address is 10.1.1.1.

B. The Manchester serial address is 10.1.1.2.

C. The London router is a Cisco 2610.

D. The Manchester router is a Cisco 2610.

E. The CDP information was received on port Serial0/0 of the Manchester router.

F. The CDP information was sent by port Serial0/0 of the London router.

Answer: A,C,E

Explanation:

From the output, we learn that the IP address of the neighbor router is 10.1.1.2 and the question

stated that the subnet mask of the network between two routersis 255.255.255.252. Therefore

there are only 2 available hosts in this network (22 – 2 = 2). So we can deduce the ip address (of

the serial interface) of Manchester router is 10.1.1.1 ->.

The platform of the neighbor router is cisco 2610, as shown in the output ->.

Maybe the most difficult choice of this question is the answer E or F. Please notice that “Interface”

refers to the local port on the local router, in this case it is the port of Manchester router, and “Port

ID (outgoing port)” refers to the port on the neighbor router.

QUESTION NO: 155

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If IP routing is enabled, which two commands set the gateway of last resort to the default

gateway? (Choose two.)

A. ip default-gateway 0.0.0.0

B. ip route 172.16.2.1 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0

C. ip default-network 0.0.0.0

D. ip default-route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1

E. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1

Answer: C,E

Explanation:

Both the “ip default-network” and “ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 (next hop)” commands can be used to

set the default gateway in a Cisco router.

QUESTION NO: 156

Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a

dynamic protocol is also being used?

A. hop count

B. administrative distance

C. link bandwidth

D. link delay

E. link cost

Answer: B

Explanation:

By default the administrative distance of a static route is 1, meaning it will be preferred overall

dynamic routing protocols.If you want to have the dynamic routing protocol used and have the

static route be used only as a backup, you need to increase the AD of the static route so that it is

higher than the dynamic routing protocol.

QUESTION NO: 157

Refer to the exhibit.

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A network associate has configured OSPF with the command:

City(config-router)# network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 area 0

After completing the configuration, the associate discovers that not all the interfaces are

participating in OSPF. Which three of the interfaces shown in the exhibit will participate in OSPF

according to this configuration statement? (Choose three.)

A. FastEthernet0 /0

B. FastEthernet0 /1

C. Serial0/0

D. Serial0/1.102

E. Serial0/1.103

F. Serial0/1.104

Answer: B,C,D

Explanation:

The “network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 equals to network 192.168.12.64/26. This network has:

+ Increment: 64 (/26= 1111 1111.1111 1111.1111 1111.1100 0000)

+ Network address: 192.168.12.64

+ Broadcast address: 192.168.12.127

Therefore all interfacesin the range of this network will join OSPF.

QUESTION NO: 158

Refer to the exhibit.

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The Lakeside Company has the internetwork in the exhibit. The administrator would like to reduce

the size of the routing table on the Central router. Which partial routing table entry in the Central

router represents a route summary that represents the LANs in Phoenix but no additional

subnets?

A. 10.0.0.0/22 is subnetted, 1 subnets

D 10.0.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1

B. 10.0.0.0/28 is subnetted, 1 subnets

D 10.2.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1

C. 10.0.0.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets

D 10.2.2.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1

D. 10.0.0.0/22 is subnetted, 1 subnets

D 10.4.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1

E. 10.0.0.0/28 is subnetted, 1 subnets

D 10.4.4.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1

F. 10.0.0.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets

D 10.4.4.4 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1

Answer: D

Explanation:

The 10.4.0.0/22 route includes 10.4.0.0/24, 10.4.1.0/24, 10.4.2.0/24 and 10.4.3.0/24 networks

only.

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QUESTION NO: 159

Refer to the graphic.

A static route to the 10.5.6.0/24 network is to be configured on the HFD router. Which commands

will accomplish this? (Choose two.)

A. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 0.0.0.255 fa0/0

B. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 0.0.0.255 10.5.4.6

C. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 255.255.255.0 fa0/0

D. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 255.255.255.0 10.5.4.6

E. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.4.6 0.0.0.255 10.5.6.0

F. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.4.6 255.255.255.0 10.5.6.0

Answer: C,D

Explanation:

The simple syntax of static route:

ip route destination-network-address subnet-mask {next-hop-IP-address | exit-interface}

+ destination-network-address: destination network address of the remote network

+ subnet mask: subnet mask of the destination network

+ next-hop-IP-address: the IP address of the receiving interface on the next-hop router

+ exit-interface: the local interface of this router where the packets will go out

In the statement “ip route 10.5.6.0 255.255.255.0 fa0/0:

+ 10.5.6.0 255.255.255.0: the destination network

+fa0/0: the exit-interface

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QUESTION NO: 160

Before installing a new, upgraded version of the IOS, what should be checked on the router, and

which command should be used to gather this information? (Choose two.)

A. the amount of available ROM

B. the amount of available flash and RAM memory

C. the version of the bootstrap software present on the router

D. show version

E. show processes

F. show running-config

Answer: B,D

Explanation:

When upgrading a new version of the IOS we need to copy the IOS to the Flash so first we have

to check if the Flash has enough memory or not. Also running the new IOS may require more

RAM than the older one so we should check the available RAM too. We can check both with the

“show version” command.

QUESTION NO: 161

Which command reveals the last method used to powercycle a router?

A. show reload

B. show boot

C. show running-config

D. show version

Answer: D

Explanation:

The “show version” command can be used to show the last method to powercycle (reset) a router.

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QUESTION NO: 162

Which command would you use on a Cisco router to verify the Layer 3 path to a host?

A. tracert address

B. traceroute address

C. telnet address

D. ssh address

Answer: B

Explanation:

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In computing, traceroute is a computer network diagnostic tool for displaying the route (path) and

measuring transit delays of packets across an Internet Protocol (IP) network. The history of the

route is recorded as the round-trip times of the packets received from each successive host

(remote node) in the route (path); the sum of the mean times in each hop indicates the total time

spent to establish the connection. Traceroute proceeds unless all (three) sent packets are lost

more than twice, then the connection is lost and the route cannot be evaluated. Ping, on the other

hand, only computes the final round-trip times from the destination point.

QUESTION NO: 163

What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to build and maintain its

topological database? (Choose two.)

A. hello packets

B. SAP messages sent by other routers

C. LSAs from other routers

D. beacons received on point-to-point links

E. routing tables received from other link-state routers

F. TTL packets from designated routers

Answer: A,C

Explanation:

Neighbor discovery is the first step in getting a link state environment up and running. In keeping

with the friendly neighbor terminology, a Hello protocol is used for this step. The protocol will

define a Hello packet format and a procedure for exchanging the packets and processing the

information the packets contain.

After the adjacencies are established, the routers may begin sending out LSAs. As the term

flooding implies, the advertisements are sent to every neighbor. In turn, each received LSA is

copied and forwarded to every neighbor except the one that sent the LSA.

QUESTION NO: 164

Which statements describe the routing protocol OSPF? (Choose three.)

A. It supports VLSM.

B. It is used to route between autonomous systems.

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C. It confines network instability to one area of the network.

D. It increases routing overhead on the network.

E. It allows extensive control of routing updates.

F. It is simpler to configure than RIP v2.

Answer: A,C,E

Explanation:

The OSPF protocol is based on link-state technology, which is a departure from the Bellman-Ford

vector based algorithms used in traditional Internet routing protocols such as RIP. OSPF has

introduced new concepts such as authentication of routing updates, Variable Length Subnet

Masks (VLSM), route summarization, and so forth.

OSPF uses flooding to exchange link-state updates between routers. Any change in routing

information is flooded to all routers in the network. Areas are introduced to put a boundary on the

explosion of link-state updates. Flooding and calculation of the Dijkstra algorithm on a router is

limited to changes within an area.

QUESTION NO: 165

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator configures a new router and enters the copy startup-config running-config

command on the router. The network administrator powers down the router and sets it up at a

remote location. When the router starts, it enters the system configuration dialog as shown. What

is the cause of the problem?

A. The network administrator failed to save the configuration.

B. The configuration register is set to 0x2100.

C. The boot system flash command is missing from the configuration.

D. The configuration register is set to 0x2102.

E. The router is configured with the boot system startup command.

Answer: A

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Explanation:

The “System Configuration Dialog” appears only when no startup configuration file is found. The

network administrator has made a mistake because the command “copy startup-config runningconfig”

will copy the startup config (which is empty) over the running config (which is configured by

the administrator). So everything configured was deleted.

Note: We can tell the router to ignore the start-up configuration on the next reload by setting the

QUESTION NO: 166

What is the default administrative distance of OSPF?

A. 90

B. 100

C. 110

D. 120

Answer: C

Explanation:

Administrative distance is the feature that routers use in order to select the best path when there

are two or more different routes to the same destination from two different routing protocols.

Administrative distance defines the reliability of a routing protocol. Each routing protocol is

prioritized in order of most to least reliable (believable) with the help of an administrative distance

value.

Default Distance Value Table

This table lists the administrative distance default values of the protocols that Cisco supports:

Route Source

Default Distance Values

Connected interface

Static route

Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) summary route

External Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)

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Internal EIGRP

IGRP

100

OSPF

110

Intermediate System-to-Intermediate System (IS-IS)

115

Routing Information Protocol (RIP)

120

Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP)

140

On Demand Routing (ODR)

160

External EIGRP

170

Internal BGP

200

Unknown*

255

QUESTION NO: 167

Which characteristics are representatives of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose three.)

A. provides common view of entire topology

B. exchanges routing tables with neighbors

C. calculates shortest path

D. utilizes event-triggered updates

E. utilizes frequent periodic updates

Answer: A,C,D

Explanation:

Each of routers running link-state routing protocol learns paths to all the destinations in its “area”

so we can say although it is a bit unclear.

Link-state routing protocols generate routing updates only (not the whole routing table) when a

change occurs in the network topology so

Link-state routing protocol like OSPF uses Dijkstra algorithm to calculate the shortest path ->.

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Unlike Distance vector routing protocol (which utilizes frequent periodic updates), link-state routing

protocol utilizes event-triggered updates (only sends update when a change occurs) ->.

QUESTION NO: 168

Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the exhibited routing table, how will packets from a host within the 192.168.10.192/26

LAN be forwarded to 192.168.10.1?

A. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1.

B. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1 to R2.

C. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1 AND from R3 to R1.

D. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1.

Answer: C

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Explanation:

From the routing table we learn that network 192.168.10.0/30 is learned via 2 equal-cost paths

(192.168.10.9 &192.168.10.5) -> traffic to this network will be load-balancing.

QUESTION NO: 169

Refer to the exhibit.

C-router is to be used as a "router-on-a-stick" to route between the VLANs. All the interfaces have

been properly configured and IP routing is operational. The hosts in the VLANs have been

configured with the appropriate default gateway. What is true about this configuration?

A. These commands need to be added to the configuration:

C-router(config)# router eigrp 123

C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0

B. These commands need to be added to the configuration:

C-router(config)# router ospf 1

C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0

C. These commands need to be added to the configuration:

C-router(config)# router rip

C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0

D. No further routing configuration is required.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Since all the same router (C-router) is the default gateway for all three VLANs, all traffic destined

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to a different VLA will be sent to the C-router.The C-router will have knowledge of all three

networks since they will appear as directly connected in the routing table.Since the C-router

already knows how to get to all three networks, no routing protocols need to be configured.

QUESTION NO: 170

Refer to the exhibit.

Why is flash memory erased prior to upgrading the IOS image from the TFTP server?

A. The router cannot verify that the Cisco IOS image currently in flash is valid.

B. Flash memory on Cisco routers can contain only a single IOS image.

C. Erasing current flash content is requested during the copy dialog.

D. In order for the router to use the new image as the default, it must be the only IOS image in

flash.

Answer: C

Explanation:

During the copy process, the router asked “Erasing flash before copying? [confirm]” and the

administrator confirmed (by pressing Enter) so the flash was deleted.

Note: In this case, the flash has enough space to copy a new IOS without deleting the current one.

The current IOS is deleted just because the administrator wants to do so. If the flash does not

have enough space you will see an error message like this:

%Error copying tftp://192.168.2.167/ c1600-k8sy-mz.l23-16a.bin (Not enough space on device)

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QUESTION NO: 171

Which command would you configure globally on a Cisco router that would allow you to view

directly connected Cisco devices?

A. enable cdp

B. cdp enable

C. cdp run

D. run cdp

Answer: C

Explanation:

CDP is enabled on Cisco routers by default. If you prefer not to use the CDP capability, disable it

with the no cdp run command. In order to reenable CDP, use the cdp run commandin global

configuration mode.The “cdp enable” command is an interface command, not global.

QUESTION NO: 172

Refer to the exhibit.

According to the routing table, where will the router send a packet destined for 10.1.5.65?

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A. 10.1.1.2

B. 10.1.2.2

C. 10.1.3.3

D. 10.1.4.4

Answer: C

Explanation:

The destination IP address 10.1.5.65 belongs to 10.1.5.64/28, 10.1.5.64/29 & 10.1.5.64/27

subnets but the “longest prefix match” algorithm will choose the most specific subnet mask -> the

prefix “/29 will be chosen to route the packet. Therefore the next-hop should be 10.1.3.3 ->.

QUESTION NO: 173

Refer to the exhibit.

Which address and mask combination represents a summary of the routes learned by EIGRP?

A. 192.168.25.0 255.255.255.240

B. 192.168.25.0 255.255.255.252

C. 192.168.25.16 255.255.255.240

D. 192.168.25.16 255.255.255.252

E. 192.168.25.28 255.255.255.240

F. 192.168.25.28 255.255.255.252

Answer: C

Explanation:

The binary version of 20 is 10100.

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The binary version of 16 is 10000.

The binary version of 24 is 11000.

The binary version of 28 is 11100.

The subnet mask is /28. The mask is 255.255.255.240.

Note:

From the output above, EIGRP learned 4 routes and we need to find out the summary of them:

+ 192.168.25.16

+ 192.168.25.20

+ 192.168.25.24

+ 192.168.25.28

-> The increment should bE. 28 – 16 = 12 but 12 is not an exponentiation of 2 so we must choose

16 (24). Therefore the subnet mask is /28 (=1111 1111.1111 1111.1111 1111.11110000) =

255.255.255.240.

So,the best answer should be 192.168.25.16 255.255.255.240.

QUESTION NO: 174

Refer to the exhibit.

Assuming that the entire network topology is shown, what is the operational status of the

interfaces of R2 as indicated by the command output shown?

A. One interface has a problem.

B. Two interfaces have problems.

C. The interfaces are functioning correctly.

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D. The operational status of the interfaces cannot be determined from the output shown.

Answer: C

Explanation:

The output shown shows normal operational status of the router’s interfaces.Serial0/0 is down

because it has been disabled using the “shutdown” command.

QUESTION NO: 175

Which two locations can be configured as a source for the IOS image in the boot system

command? (Choose two.)

A. RAM

B. NVRAM

C. flash memory

D. HTTP server

E. TFTP server

F. Telnet server

Answer: C,E

Explanation:

The following locations can be configured as a source for the IOS image:

1. + Flash (the default location)

2. + TFTP server

3. + ROM (used if no other source is found)

4. (Please read the explanation of Question 4 for more information)

QUESTION NO: 176

Refer to the exhibit.

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Given the output for this command, if the router ID has not been manually set, what router ID will

OSPF use for this router?

A. 10.1.1.2

B. 10.154.154.1

C. 172.16.5.1

D. 192.168.5.3

Answer: C

Explanation:

The highest IP address of all loopback interfaces will be chosen -> Loopback 0 will be chosen as

the router ID.

QUESTION NO: 177

Refer to the exhibit.

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What commands must be configured on the 2950 switch and the router to allow communication

between host 1 and host 2? (Choose two.)

A. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0

Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0

Router(config-if)# no shut down

B. Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0

Router(config-if)# no shut down

Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.1

Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 10

Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0

Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.2

Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 20

Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0

C. Router(config)# router eigrp 100

Router(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0

Router(config-router)# network 192.168.20.0

D. Switch1(config)# vlan database

Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp domain XYZ

Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp server

E. Switch1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1

Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

F. Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1

Switch1(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1

Answer: B,E

Explanation:

The router will need to use subinterfaces, where each subinterface is assigned a VLANand IP

address for each VLAN.On the switch, the connection to the router need to be configured as a

trunk using the switchport mode trunk command and it will need a default gateway for VLAN 1.

QUESTION NO: 178

Which two statements describe the process identifier that is used in the command to configure

OSPF on a router? (Choose two.)

Router(config)# router ospf 1

A. All OSPF routers in an area must have the same process ID.

B. Only one process number can be used on the same router.

C. Different process identifiers can be used to run multiple OSPF processes

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D. The process number can be any number from 1 to 65,535.

E. Hello packets are sent to each neighbor to determine the processor identifier.

Answer: C,D

Explanation:

Multiple OSPF processes can be configured on a router using multiple process ID’s.The valid

process ID’s are shown below:

Edge-B(config)#router ospf ?

<1-65535>Process ID

QUESTION NO: 179

Refer to the exhibit.

For what two reasons has the router loaded its IOS image from the location that is shown?

(Choose two.)

A. Router1 has specific boot system commands that instruct it to load IOS from a TFTP server.

B. Router1 is acting as a TFTP server for other routers.

C. Router1 cannot locate a valid IOS image in flash memory.

D. Router1 defaulted to ROMMON mode and loaded the IOS image from a TFTP server.

E. Cisco routers will first attempt to load an image from TFTP for management purposes.

Answer: A,C

Explanation:

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The loading sequence of CISCO IOS is as follows:

Booting up the router and locating the Cisco IOS

1. POST (power on self-test)

2. Bootstrap code executed

3. Check Configuration Register value (NVRAM) which can be modified using the config-register

command

0 = ROM Monitor mode

1 = ROM IOS

2 - 15 = startup-config in NVRAM

4. Startup-config filE. Check for boot system commands (NVRAM)

If boot system commands in startup-config

a. Run boot system commands in order they appear in startup-config to locate the IOS

b. [If boot system commands fail, use default fallback sequence to locate the IOS (Flash, TFTP,

ROM)?]

If no boot system commands in startup-config use the default fallback sequence in locating the

IOS:

a. Flash (sequential)

b. TFTP server (netboot)

c. ROM (partial IOS) or keep retrying TFTP depending upon router model

5. If IOS is loaded, but there is no startup-config file, the router will use the default fallback

sequence for locating the IOS and then it will enter setup mode or the setup dialogue.

QUESTION NO: 180

Refer to the exhibit.

What can be determined about the router from the console output?

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A. No configuration file was found in NVRAM.

B. No configuration file was found in flash.

C. No configuration file was found in the PCMCIA card.

D. Configuration file is normal and will load in 15 seconds.

Answer: A

Explanation:

When no startup configuration file is found in NVRAM, the System Configuration Dialog will appear

to ask if we want to enter the initial configuration dialog or not.

QUESTION NO: 181

Which three elements must be used when you configure a router interface for VLAN trunking?

(Choose three.)

A. one physical interface for each subinterface

B. one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface

C. a management domain for each subinterface

D. subinterface encapsulation identifiers that match VLAN tags

E. one subinterface per VLAN

F. subinterface numbering that matches VLAN tags

Answer: B,D,E

Explanation:

This scenario is commonly called a router on a stick.A short, well written article on this operation

can be found here:

http://www.thebryantadvantage.com/RouterOnAStickCCNACertificationExamTutorial.htm

QUESTION NO: 182

Which commands are required to properly configure a router to run OSPF and to add network

192.168.16.0/24 to OSPF area 0? (Choose two.)

A. Router(config)# router ospf 0

B. Router(config)# router ospf 1

C. Router(config)# router ospf area 0

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D. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 0

E. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

F. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 255.255.255.0 area 0

Answer: B,E

Explanation:

In the router ospfcommand, the ranges from 1 to 65535 so o is an invalid number ->but

To configure OSPF, we need a wildcard in the “network” statement, not a subnet mask. We also

need to assgin an area to this process ->.

QUESTION NO: 183

A router receives information about network 192.168.10.0/24 from multiple sources. What will the

router consider the most reliable information about the path to that network?

A. a directly connected interface with an address of 192.168.10.254/24

B. a static route to network 192.168.10.0/24

C. a RIP update for network 192.168.10.0/24

D. an OSPF update for network 192.168.0.0/16

E. a default route with a next hop address of 192.168.10.1

F. a static route to network 192.168.10.0/24 with a local serial interface configured as the next hop

Answer: A

Explanation:

When there is more than one way to reach a destination, it will choose the best one based on a

couple of things.First, it will choose the route that has the longest match; meaning the most

specific route.So, in this case the /24 routes willbe chosen over the /16 routes.Next, from all the

/24 routes it will choose the one with the lowest administrative distance.Directly connected routes

have an AD of 1 so this will be the route chosen.

QUESTION NO: 184

What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing table

of a Cisco OSPF router?

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A. 2

B. 8

C. 16

D. unlimited

Answer: B

Explanation:

maximum-paths (OSPF)

To control the maximum number of parallel routes that Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) can

support, use themaximum-pathscommand.

Syntax Description

maximum

Maximum number of parallel routes that OSPF can install in a routing table. The range is from 1 to

16 routes.

Command Default

8paths

QUESTION NO: 185

Which command shows your active Telnet connections?

A. show cdp neigbors

B. show session

C. show users

D. show vty logins

Answer: B

Explanation:

The “show users” shows telnet/ssh connections to your router while “show sessions” shows

telnet/ssh connections from your router (to other devices). The question asks about “your active

Telnet connections”, meaning connections from your router so the answer should be A.

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QUESTION NO: 186

Which type of EIGRP route entry describes a feasible successor?

A. a backup route, stored in the routing table

B. a primary route, stored in the routing table

C. a backup route, stored in the topology table

D. a primary route, stored in the topology table

Answer: C

Explanation:

EIGRP uses the Neighbor Table to list adjacent routers. The Topology Table list all the learned

routers to destination whilst the Routing Table contains the best route to a destination, which is

known as the Successor. The Feasible Successor is a backup route to a destination which is kept

in the Topology Table.

QUESTION NO: 187

The network administrator cannot connect to Switch1 over a Telnet session, although the hosts

attached to Switch1 can ping the interface Fa0/0 of the router.

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Given the information in the graphic and assuming that the router and Switch2 are configured

properly, which of the following commands should be issued on Switch1 to correct this problem?

A. Switch1(config)# line con0

Switch1(config-line)# password cisco

Switch1(config-line)#login

B. Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1

Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.24.3 255.255.255.0

C. Switch1(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.24.1

D. Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1

Switch1(config-if)# duplex full

Switch1(config-if)# speed 100

E. Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1

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Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

Answer: C

Explanation:

Since we know hosts can reach the router through the switch, we know that connectivity,duplex.

Speed, etc. are good.However, for the switch itself to reach networks outside the local one, the ip

default-gateway command must be used.

QUESTION NO: 188

Refer to the exhibit.

Which of these statements correctly describes the state of the switch once the boot process has

been completed?

A. As FastEthernet0/12 will be the last to come up, it will be blocked by STP.

B. Remote access management of this switch will not be possible without configuration change.

C. More VLANs will need to be created for this switch.

D. The switch will need a different IOS code in order to support VLANs and STP.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Notice the line, which says “Interface VLAN1, changed state to administratively down”. This shows

that VLAN1 is shut down. Hence remote management of this switch is not possible unless VLAN1

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is brought back up. Since VLAN1 is the only interface shown in the output, you have to assume

that no other VLAN interface has been configured with an IP Address.

QUESTION NO: 189

Two routers named Atlanta and Brevard are connected via their serial interfaces as illustrated, but

they are unable to communicate. The Atlanta router is known to have the correct configuration.

Given the partial configurations, identify the fault on the Brevard router that is causing the lack of

connectivity.

A. incompatible IP address

B. insufficient bandwidth

C. incorrect subnet mask

D. incompatible encapsulation

E. link reliability too low

F. IPCP closed

Answer: D

Explanation:

Because Interface Serial 0 of Atlanta Router has 192.168.10.1 And Interface Serial 1 of Router

Brevard has 192.168.11.2. These are from different network.

QUESTION NO: 190

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Users on the 172.17.22.0 network cannot reach the server located on the 172.31.5.0 network. The

network administrator connected to router Coffee via the console port, issued the show ip route

command, and was able to ping the server.

Based on the output of the show ip route command and the topology shown in the graphic, what is

the cause of the failure?

A. The network has not fully converged.

B. IP routing is not enabled.

C. A static route is configured incorrectly.

D. The FastEthernet interface on Coffee is disabled.

E. The neighbor relationship table is not correctly updated.

F. The routing table on Coffee has not updated.

Answer: C

Explanation:

The default route or the static route was configured with incorrect next-hop ip address

172.19.22.2. The correct IPaddress will be 172.18.22.2 to reach server located on 172.31.5.0

network. IProute 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.18.22.2

QUESTION NO: 191

A network administrator is trying to add a new router into an established OSPF network. The

networks attached to the new router do not appear in the routing tables of the other OSPF routers.

Given the information in the partial configuration shown below, what configuration error is causing

this problem?

Router(config)# router ospf 1

Router(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 area 0

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A. The process id is configured improperly.

B. The OSPF area is configured improperly.

C. The network wildcard mask is configured improperly.

D. The network number is configured improperly.

E. The AS is configured improperly.

F. The network subnet mask is configured improperly.

Answer: C

Explanation:

When configuring OSPF, the mask used for the network statement is a wildcard mask similar to an

access list.In this specific example, the correct syntax would have been “network 10.0.0.0

0.0.0.255 area 0.”

QUESTION NO: 192

Which two statements about the OSPF Router ID are true? (Choose two.)

A. It identifies the source of a Type 1 LSA.

B. It should be the same on all routers in an OSPF routing instance.

C. By default, the lowest IP address on the router becomes the OSPF Router ID.

D. The router automatically chooses the IP address of a loopback as the OSPF Router ID.

E. It is created using the MAC Address of the loopback interface.

Answer: A,D

Explanation:

r120#show ip ospf data

OSPF Router with ID (10.0.0.120) (Process ID 1)

Next, who are the other routers in our area?

Router Link States (Area 1)

Link IDADV RouterAgeSeq#ChecksumLink count

10.0.0.11110.0.0.1116000x8000023A0x0092B31

10.0.0.11210.0.0.11212460x800002340x009CAC1

10.0.0.11310.0.0.1131480x8000022C0x0043993

10.0.0.12010.0.0.1201520x800002400x0046CB1

We can see OSPF Router ID will beused as source of Type 1 LSA.Also the router will chose the

highest loopback interface as its OSPF router ID (if available).

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QUESTION NO: 193

What are two benefits of using a single OSPF area network design? (Choose two.)

A. It is less CPU intensive for routers in the single area.

B. It reduces the types of LSAs that are generated.

C. It removes the need for virtual links.

D. It increases LSA response times.

E. It reduces the number of required OSPF neighbor adjacencies.

Answer: B,C

Explanation:

OSPF uses a LSDB (link state database) and fills this with LSAs (link state advertisement). The

link types are as follows:

•LSA Type 1: Router LSA

•LSA Type 2: Network LSA

•LSA Type 3: Summary LSA

•LSA Type 4: Summary ASBR LSA

•LSA Type 5: Autonomous system external LSA

•LSA Type 6: Multicast OSPF LSA

•LSA Type 7: Not-so-stubby area LSA

•LSA Type 8: External attribute LSA for BGP

If all routers are in the same area, then many of these LSA types (Summary ASBR LSA, external

LSA, etc) will not be used and will not be generated by any router.

All areas in an Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) autonomous system must be physically

connected to the backbone area (Area 0). In some cases, where this is not possible, you can use

a virtual link to connect to the backbone through a non-backbone area. You can also use virtual

links to connect two parts of a partitioned backbone through a non-backbone area. The area

through which you configure the virtual link, known as a transit area, must have full routing

information. The transit area cannot be a stub area.Virtual links are not ideal and should really only

be used for temporary network solutions or migrations.However, if all locations are in a single

OSPF area this is not needed.

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QUESTION NO: 194

When a router undergoes the exchange protocol within OSPF, in what order does it pass through

each state?

A. exstart state > loading state > exchange state > full state

B. exstart state > exchange state > loading state > full state

C. exstart state > full state > loading state > exchange state

D. loading state > exchange state > full state > exstart state

Answer: B

Explanation:

When OSPF adjacency is formed, a router goes through several state changes before it becomes

fully adjacent with its neighbor. Those states are defined in the OSPF RFC 2328, section 10.1.

The states are (in order) Down, Attempt, Init, 2-Way, Exstart, Exchange, Loading, and Full.

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/open-shortest-path-first-ospf/13685-

13.html

QUESTION NO: 195

What are two enhancements that OSPFv3 supports over OSPFv2? (Choose two.)

A. It requires the use of ARP.

B. It can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link.

C. It supports up to 2 instances of OSPFv3 over a common link.

D. It routes over links rather than over networks.

Answer: B,D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 196

What are two enhancements that OSPFv3 supports over OSPFv2? (Choose two.)

A. It requires the use of ARP.

B. It can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link.

C. It supports up to 2 instances of OSPFv3 over a common link.

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D. It routes over links rather than over networks.

Answer: B,D

Explanation:

Here is a list of the differences between OSPFv2 and OSPFv3:

Reference: http://www.networkworld.com/article/2225270/cisco-subnet/ospfv3-for-ipv4-andipv6.

html

QUESTION NO: 197

What command sequence will configure a router to run OSPF and add network 10.1.1.0 /24 to

area 0?

A. router ospf area 0

network 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 area 0

B. router ospf

network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255

C. router ospf 1

network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

D. router ospf area 0

network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

E. router ospf

network 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 area 0

F. router ospf 1

network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255

Answer: C

Explanation:

SUMMARY STEPS

1.enable

2.configureterminal

3.router ospfprocess-id

4.networkip-addresswildcard-maskareaarea-id

5.end

DETAILED STEPS

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Command or Action

Purpose

Step1

Enable

Example:

Device> enable

Enables privileged EXEC mode.

Step2

Configureterminal

Example:

Device# configure terminal

Enters global configuration mode.

Step3

router ospfprocess-id

Example:

Device(config)# router ospf 109

Enables OSPF routing and enters router configuration mode.

Step4

Networkip-addresswildcard-maskareaarea-id

Example:

Device(config-router)# network 192.168.129.16 0.0.0.3 area 0

Defines an interface on which OSPF runs and defines the area ID for that interface.

Step5

End

Example:

Device(config-router)# end

Exits router configuration mode and returns to privileged EXEC mode.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/iproute_ospf/configuration/12-4t/iro-

12-4t-book/iro-cfg.html#GUID-588D1301-F63C-4DAC-BF1C-C3735EB13673

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QUESTION NO: 198

Refer to the exhibit.

If the router Cisco returns the given output and has not had its router ID set manually, what value

will OSPF use as its router ID?

A. 192.168.1.1

B. 172.16.1.1

C. 1.1.1.1

D. 2.2.2.2

Answer: D

Explanation:

If a router-id is not configured manually in the OSPF routing process the router will automatically

configure a router-id determined from the highest IP address of a logical interface (loopback

interface) or the highest IPaddress of an active interface.If more than one loopback interfaces are

configured, the router will compare the IP addresses of each of the interfaces and choose the

highest IP address from the loopbacks.

QUESTION NO: 199

What OSPF command, when configured, will include all interfaces into area 0?

A. network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0

B. network 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 area 0

C. network 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0 area 0

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D. network all-interfaces area 0

Answer: A

Explanation:

Example 3-1 displays OSPF with a process ID of 1 and places all interfaces configured with an IP

addressin area 0. The network commandnetwork 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0dictates that you

do not care (255.255.255.255) what the IP address is, but if an IP address is enabled on any

interface, place it in area 0.

Example 3-1Configuring OSPF in a Single Area

router ospf 1

network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0

Reference: http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=26919&seqNum=3

QUESTION NO: 200

Which statement describes the process ID that is used to run OSPF on a router?

A. It is globally significant and is used to represent the AS number.

B. It is locally significant and is used to identify an instance of the OSPF database.

C. It is globally significant and is used to identify OSPF stub areas.

D. It is locally significant and must be the same throughout an area.

Answer: B

Explanation:

The Process ID for OSPF on a router is only locally significant and you can use the same number

on each router, or each router can have a different number-it just doesn't matter. The numbers you

can use are from 1 to 65,535. Don't get this confused with area numbers, which can be from 0 to

4.2 billion.

Topic 5, IP Services

QUESTION NO: 201

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Which statement is correct regarding the operation of DHCP?

A. A DHCP client uses a ping to detect address conflicts.

B. A DHCP server uses a gratuitous ARP to detect DHCP clients.

C. A DHCP client uses a gratuitous ARP to detect a DHCP server.

D. If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool and an administrator

must resolve the conflict.

E. If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool for an amount of time

configurable by the administrator.

F. If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool and will not be reused

until the server is rebooted.

Answer: D

Explanation:

An address conflict occurs when two hosts use the same IP address. During address assignment,

DHCP checks for conflicts using ping and gratuitous ARP. If a conflict is detected, the address is

removed from the pool. The address will not be assigned until the administrator resolves the

conflict.

(Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_1/iproute/configuration/guide/1cddhcp.html)

QUESTION NO: 202

Refer to the exhibit.

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What statement is true of the configuration for this network?

A. The configuration that is shown provides inadequate outside address space for translation of

the number of inside addresses that are supported.

B. Because of the addressing on interface FastEthernet0/1, the Serial0/0 interface address will not

support the NAT configuration as shown.

C. The number 1 referred to in the ip nat inside source command references access-list number 1.

D. ExternalRouter must be configured with static routes to networks 172.16.1.0/24 and

172.16.2.0/24.

Answer: C

Explanation:

The “list 1 refers to the access-list number 1.

QUESTION NO: 203

Which statement describes the process of dynamically assigning IP addresses by the DHCP

server?

A. Addresses are allocated after a negotiation between the server and the host to determine the

length of the agreement.

B. Addresses are permanently assigned so that the hosts uses the same address at all times.

C. Addresses are assigned for a fixed period of time, at the end of the period, a new request for an

address must be made.

D. Addresses are leased to hosts, which periodically contact the DHCP server to renew the lease.

Answer: D

Explanation:

The DHCP lifecycle consists of the following:

QUESTION NO: 204

What are two benefits of using NAT? (Choose two.)

A. NAT facilitates end-to-end communication when IPsec is enabled.

B. NAT eliminates the need to re-address all hosts that require external access.

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C. NAT conserves addresses through host MAC-level multiplexing.

D. Dynamic NAT facilitates connections from the outside of the network.

E. NAT accelerates the routing process because no modifications are made on the packets.

F. NAT protects network security because private networks are not advertised.

Answer: B,F

Explanation:

By not revealing the internal IPaddresses, NAT adds some security to the inside network -> F is

correct.

NAT has to modify the source IP addresses in the packets -> E is not correct.

Connection from the outside of the network through a “NAT” network is more difficult than a more

network because IP addresses of inside hosts are hidden -> C is not correct.

In order for IPsec to work with NAT we need to allow additional protocols, including Internet Key

Exchange (IKE), Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) and Authentication Header (AH) -> more

complex -> A is not correct.

By allocating specific public IP addresses to inside hosts, NAT eliminates the need to re-address

the inside hosts -> B is correct.

NAT does conserve addresses but not through host MAC-level multiplexing. It conserves

addresses by allowing many private IP addresses to use the same public IP address to go to the

Internet -> C is not correct.

QUESTION NO: 205

On which options are standard access lists based?

A. destination address and wildcard mask

B. destination address and subnet mask

C. source address and subnet mask

D. source address and wildcard mask

Answer: D

Explanation:

Standard ACL’s only examine the source IP address/mask todetermine if a match is

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made.Extended ACL’s examine the source and destination address, as well as port information.

QUESTION NO: 206

A network engineer wants to allow a temporary entry for a remote user with a specific username

and password so that the user can access the entire network over the Internet. Which ACL can be

used?

A. standard

B. extended

C. dynamic

D. reflexive

Answer: C

Explanation:

We can use a dynamic access list to authenticate a remote user with a specific username and

password. The authentication process is done by the router or a central access server such as a

TACACS+ or RADIUS server. The configuration of dynamic ACL can be read

here:http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk583/tk822/technologies_tech_note09186a0080094524.sh

tml

QUESTION NO: 207

How does a DHCP server dynamically assign IP addresses to hosts?

A. Addresses are permanently assigned so that the host uses the same address at all times.

B. Addresses are assigned for a fixed period of time. At the end of the period, a new request for

an address must be made, and another address is then assigned.

C. Addresses are leased to hosts. A host will usually keep the same address by periodically

contacting the DHCP server to renew the lease.

D. Addresses are allocated after a negotiation between the server and the host to determine the

length of the agreement.

Answer: C

Explanation:

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DHCP works in a client/server mode and operates like any other client/server relationship. When a

PC connects to a DHCP server, the server assigns or leases an IP address to that PC. The PC

connects to the network with that leased IP address until the lease expires. The host must contact

the DHCP server periodically to extend the lease. This lease mechanism ensures that hosts that

move or power off do not hold onto addresses that they do not need. The DHCP server returns

these addresses to the address pool and reallocates them as necessary.

QUESTION NO: 208

Refer to the exhibit.

Which rule does the DHCP server use when there is an IP address conflict?

A. The address is removed from the pool until the conflict is resolved.

B. The address remains in the pool until the conflict is resolved.

C. Only the IP detected by Gratuitous ARP is removed from the pool.

D. Only the IP detected by Ping is removed from the pool.

E. The IP will be shown, even after the conflict is resolved.

Answer: A

Explanation:

An address conflict occurs when two hosts use the same IP address. During address assignment,

DHCP checks for conflicts using ping and gratuitous ARP. If a conflict is detected, the address is

removed from the pool. The address will not be assigned until the administrator resolves the

conflict.

(Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_1/iproute/configuration/guide/1cddhcp.html)

QUESTION NO: 209

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Refer to the exhibit.

The Bigtime router is unable to authenticate to the Littletime router. What is the cause of the

problem?

A. The usernames are incorrectly configured on the two routers.

B. The passwords do not match on the two routers.

C. CHAP authentication cannot be used on a serial interface.

D. The routers cannot be connected from interface S0/0 to interface S0/0.

E. With CHAP authentication, one router must authenticate to another router. The routers cannot

be configured to authenticate to each other.

Answer: B

Explanation:

With CHAP authentication, the configured passwords must be identical on each router.Here, it is

configured as little123 on one side and big123 on the other.

QUESTION NO: 210

Which two tasks does the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol perform? (Choose two.)

A. Set the IP gateway to be used by the network.

B. Perform host discovery used DHCPDISCOVER message.

C. Configure IP address parameters from DHCP server to a host.

D. Provide an easy management of layer 3 devices.

E. Monitor IP performance using the DHCP server.

F. Assign and renew IP address from the default pool.

Answer: C,F

Explanation:

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The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a network protocol used to configure devices

that are connected to a network (known as hosts) so they can communicate on that network using

the Internet Protocol (IP). It involves clients and a server operating in a client-server model.DHCP

servers assigns IP addresses from a pool of addresses and also assigns other parameters such

as DNS and default gateways to hosts.

QUESTION NO: 211

When a DHCP server is configured, which two IP addresses should never be assignable to hosts?

(Choose two.)

A. network or subnetwork IP address

B. broadcast address on the network

C. IP address leased to the LAN

D. IP address used by the interfaces

E. manually assigned address to the clients

F. designated IP address to the DHCP server

Answer: A,B

Explanation:

Network or subnetwork IP address (for example 11.0.0.0/8 or 13.1.0.0/16) and broadcast address

(for example 23.2.1.255/24) should never be assignable to hosts. When try to assign these

addresses to hosts, you will receive an error message saying that they can’t be assignable.

QUESTION NO: 212

Which two statements about static NAT translations are true? (Choose two.)

A. They allow connections to be initiated from the outside.

B. They require no inside or outside interface markings because addresses are statically defined.

C. They are always present in the NAT table.

D. They can be configured with access lists, to allow two or more connections to be initiated from

the outside.

Answer: A,C

Explanation:

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Static NAT is to map a single outside IP addressto a single inside IP address.This is typically done

to allow incoming connections from the outside (Internet) to theinside.Since these are static, they

are always present in the NAT table even if they are not actively in use.

QUESTION NO: 213

What is a valid HSRP virtual MAC address?

A. 0000.5E00.01A3

B. 0007.B400.AE01

C. 0000.0C07.AC15

D. 0007.5E00.B301

Answer: C

Explanation:

With HSRP, two or more devices support a virtual router with a fictitious MAC address and unique

IP address. There are two version of HSRP.

+ With HSRP version 1, the virtual router’s MAC address is 0000.0c07.ACxx , in which xx is the

HSRP group.

+ With HSRP version 2, the virtual MAC address if 0000.0C9F.Fxxx, in which xxx is the HSRP

group.

Note: Another case is HSRP for IPv6, in which the MAC address range from 0005.73A0.0000

through 0005.73A0.0FFF.

QUESTION NO: 214

In GLBP, which router will respond to client ARP requests?

A. The active virtual gateway will reply with one of four possible virtual MAC addresses.

B. All GLBP member routers will reply in round-robin fashion.

C. The active virtual gateway will reply with its own hardware MAC address.

D. The GLBP member routers will reply with one of four possible burned in hardware addresses.

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Answer: A

Explanation:

One disadvantage of HSRP and VRRP is that only one router is in use, other routers must wait for

the primary to fail because they can be used. However, Gateway Load Balancing Protocol (GLBP)

can use of up to four routers simultaneously. In GLBP, there is still only one virtual IP address but

each router has a different virtual MAC address. First a GLBP group must elect an Active Virtual

Gateway (AVG). The AVG is responsible for replying ARP requests from hosts/clients. It replies

with different virtual MAC addresses that correspond to different routers (known as Active Virtual

Forwarders – AVFs) so that clients can send traffic to different routers in that GLBP group (load

sharing).

QUESTION NO: 215

Which statement describes VRRP object tracking?

A. It monitors traffic flow and link utilization.

B. It ensures the best VRRP router is the virtual router master for the group.

C. It causes traffic to dynamically move to higher bandwidth links.

D. It thwarts man-in-the-middle attacks.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Object tracking is the process of tracking the state of a configured object and uses that state to

determine the priority of the VRRP router in a VRRP group.

QUESTION NO: 216

What are three benefits of GLBP? (Choose three.)

A. GLBP supports up to eight virtual forwarders per GLBP group.

B. GLBP supports clear text and MD5 password authentication between GLBP group members.

C. GLBP is an open source standardized protocol that can be used with multiple vendors.

D. GLBP supports up to 1024 virtual routers.

E. GLBP can load share traffic across a maximum of four routers.

F. GLBP elects two AVGs and two standby AVGs for redundancy.

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Answer: B,D,E

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 217

Which three statements about HSRP operation are true? (Choose three.)

A. The virtual IP address and virtual MA+K44C address are active on the HSRP Master router.

B. The HSRP default timers are a 3 second hello interval and a 10 second dead interval.

C. HSRP supports only clear-text authentication.

D. The HSRP virtual IP address must be on a different subnet than the routers' interfaces on the

same LAN.

E. The HSRP virtual IP address must be the same as one of the router's interface addresses on

the LAN.

F. HSRP supports up to 255 groups per interface, enabling an administrative form of load

balancing.

Answer: A,B,F

Explanation:

The virtual MAC address of HSRP version 1 is 0000.0C07.ACxx, where xx is the HSRP group

number in hexadecimal based on the respective interface. For example, HSRP group 10 uses the

HSRP virtual MAC address of 0000.0C07.AC0A. HSRP version 2 uses a virtual MAC address of

0000.0C9F.FXXX (XXX: HSRP group in hexadecimal).

QUESTION NO: 218

Which three statements about Syslog utilization are true? (Choose three.)

A. Utilizing Syslog improves network performance.

B. The Syslog server automatically notifies the network administrator of network problems.

C. A Syslog server provides the storage space necessary to store log files without using router

disk space.

D. There are more Syslog messages available within Cisco IOS than there are comparable SNMP

trap messages.

E. Enabling Syslog on a router automatically enables NTP for accurate time stamping.

F. A Syslog server helps in aggregation of logs and alerts.

Answer: C,D,F

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Explanation:

The Syslog sender sends a small (less than 1KB) text message to the Syslog receiver. The Syslog

receiver is commonly called "syslogd," "Syslog daemon," or "Syslog server." Syslog messages

can be sent via UDP (port 514) and/or TCP (typically, port 5000). While there are some

exceptions, such as SSL wrappers, this data is typically sent in clear text over the network.A

Syslog server provides the storage space necessary to store log files without using router disk

space.

In general, there are significantly more Syslog messages available within IOS as compared to

SNMP Trap messages. For example, a Cisco Catalyst 6500 switch running Cisco IOS Software

Release 12.2(18)SXF contains about 90 SNMP trap notification messages, but has more than

6000 Syslog event messages.

System logging is a method of collecting messages from devices to a server running a syslog

daemon.Logging to a central syslog server helps in aggregation of logs and alerts. Cisco devices

can send their log messages to a UNIX-style syslog service. A syslog service accepts messages

and stores them in files, or prints them according to a simple configuration file.

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/services/highavailability/

white_paper_c11-557812.html

QUESTION NO: 219

A network administrator enters the following command on a router: logging trap 3. What are three

message types that will be sent to the Syslog server? (Choose three.)

A. informational

B. emergency

C. warning

D. critical

E. debug

F. error

Answer: B,D,F

Explanation:

The Message Logging is divided into 8 levels as listed below:

Level

Keyword

Description

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emergencies

System is unusable

alerts

Immediate action is needed

critical

Critical conditions exist

errors

Error conditions exist

warnings

Warning conditions exist

notification

Normal, but significant, conditions exist

informational

Informational messages

debugging

Debugging messages

If you specify a level with the “loggingtrap level” command, that level and all the higher levels will

be logged. For example, by using the “logging trap 3 command, all the logging of emergencies,

alerts, critical, and errors, will be logged.

QUESTION NO: 220

What is the default Syslog facility level?

A. local4

B. local5

C. local6

D. local7

Answer: D

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Explanation:

By default, Cisco IOS devices, CatOS switches, and VPN 3000 Concentrators use facility local7

while Cisco PIX Firewalls use local4 to send syslog messages. Moreover, most Cisco devices

provide options to change the facility level from their default value.

Reference: http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=426638

QUESTION NO: 221

What command instructs the device to timestamp Syslog debug messages in milliseconds?

A. service timestamps log datetime localtime<input type

B. service timestamps debug datetime msec<input type

C. service timestamps debug datetime localtime<input type

D. service timestamps log datetime msec

Answer: B

Explanation:

Enable millisecond (msec) timestamps usingthe service timestamps command:

router(config)#servicetimestamps debug datetime msec.

router(config)#service timestamps log datetime msecThe “service timestamps debug”.

command configures the system to apply a time stamp to debugging messages. The time-stamp

format fordatetimeisMMM DD HH:MM:SS, whereMMMis the month,DDis the date,HHis the hour

(in 24-hour notation),MMis the minute, andSSis the second. With the additional keywordmsec, the

system includes milliseconds in the time stamp, in the formatHH:DD:MM:SS.mmm, where .mmmis

milliseconds.

QUESTION NO: 222

Refer to the exhibit.

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What is the cause of the Syslog output messages?

A. The EIGRP neighbor on Fa0/1 went down due to a failed link.

B. The EIGRP neighbor connected to Fa0/1 is participating in a different EIGRP process, causing

the adjacency to go down.

C. A shut command was executed on interface Fa0/1, causing the EIGRP adjacency to go down.

D. Interface Fa0/1 has become error disabled, causing the EIGRP adjacency to go down.

Answer: C

Explanation:

The first lines of the message show that a configuration change was made, and that the fa0/1

interface changed to a state of administratively down.This can only be done byissuing the

shutdown command.The last line indicates that this caused an EIGRP neighbor adjacency to go

down.

QUESTION NO: 223

What are three components that comprise the SNMP framework? (Choose three.)

A. MIB

B. agent

C. set

D. AES

E. supervisor

F. manager

Answer: A,B,F

Explanation:

The SNMP framework consists of three parts:

•An SNMP manager—The system used to control and monitor the activities of network devices

using SNMP.

•An SNMP agent—The software component within the managed device that maintains the data for

the device and reports these data, as needed, to managing systems. Cisco Nexus 1000V supports

the agent and MIB. To enable the SNMP agent, you must define the relationship between the

manager and the agent.

•A managed information base (MIB)—The collection of managed objects on the SNMP agent.

SNMP is defined in RFCs 3411 to 3418.

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Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus1000/sw/4_0_4_s_v_1_3/system_

management/configuration/guide/n1000v_system/n1000v_system_10snmp.html

QUESTION NO: 224

What levels will be trapped if the administrator executes the command

router(config)# logging trap 4 (Choose four)

A. Emergency

B. Notice

C. Alert

D. Error

E. Warning

Answer: A,C,D,E

Explanation:

The Message Logging is divided into 8 levels as listed below:

Level Keyword Description

0 emergencies System is unusable

1 alerts Immediate action is needed

2 critical Critical conditions exist

3 errors Error conditions exist

4 warnings Warning conditions exist

5 notification Normal, but significant, conditions exist

6 informational Informational messages

7 debugging Debugging messages

If you specify a level with the “logging trap level” command, that level and all the higher levels will

be logged. For example, by using the “logging trap 4 command, all the logging of emergencies,

alerts, critical, errors, warnings will be logged.

QUESTION NO: 225

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What SNMP message alerts the manager to a condition on the network?

A. response

B. get

C. trap

D. capture

Answer: C

Explanation:

An agent can send unsolicited traps to the manager. Traps are messages alerting the SNMP

manager to a condition on the network. Traps can mean improper user authentication, restarts,

link status (up or down), MAC address tracking, closing of a TCP connection, loss of connection to

a neighbor, or other significant events.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst2950/software/release/12-

1_9_ea1/configuration/guide/scg/swsnmp.html

QUESTION NO: 226

What authentication type is used by SNMPv2?

A. HMAC-MD5

B. HMAC-SHA

C. CBC-DES

D. community strings

Answer: D

Explanation:

SNMP Versions

Cisco IOS software supportsthe following versions of SNMP:

•SNMPv1—The Simple Network Management Protocol: A Full Internet Standard, defined in RFC

1157. (RFC 1157 replaces the earlier versions that were published as RFC 1067 and RFC 1098.)

Securityis based on community strings.

•SNMPv2c—The community-string based Administrative Framework for SNMPv2. SNMPv2c (the

"c" stands for "community") is an Experimental Internet Protocol defined in RFC 1901, RFC 1905,

and RFC 1906. SNMPv2c is an update of the protocol operations and data types of SNMPv2p

(SNMPv2 Classic), and uses the community-based security model of SNMPv1.

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•SNMPv3—Version 3 of SNMP. SNMPv3 is an interoperable standards-based protocol defined in

RFCs 2273 to 2275. SNMPv3 provides secure access to devices by a combination of

authenticating and encrypting packets over the network.

SNMP Security Models and Levels

Model

Level

Authentication

Encryption

What Happens

noAuthNoPriv

Community String

Uses a community string match for authentication.

v2c

noAuthNoPriv

Community String

Uses a community string match for authentication.

noAuthNoPriv

Username

Uses a username match for authentication.

authNoPriv

MD5 or SHA

Provides authentication based on the HMAC-MD5 or HMAC-SHA algorithms.

authPriv

MD5 or SHA

DES

Provides authentication based on the HMAC-MD5 or HMAC-SHA algorithms. Provides DES 56-bit

encryption in addition to authentication based on the CBC-DES (DES-56) standard.

Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2/configfun/configuration/guide/ffun_c/fcf014.html

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QUESTION NO: 227

Which three statements about the features of SNMPv2 and SNMPv3 are true? (Choose three.)

A. SNMPv3 enhanced SNMPv2 security features.

B. SNMPv3 added the Inform protocol message to SNMP.

C. SNMPv2 added the Inform protocol message to SNMP.

D. SNMPv3 added the GetBulk protocol messages to SNMP.

E. SNMPv2 added the GetBulk protocol message to SNMP.

F. SNMPv2 added the GetNext protocol message to SNMP.

Answer: A,C,E

Explanation:

SNMPv1/v2 can neither authenticate the source of a management message nor provide

encryption. Without authentication, it is possible for nonauthorized users to exercise SNMP

network management functions. It is also possible for nonauthorized users to eavesdrop on

management information as it passes from managed systems to the management system.

Because of these deficiencies, many SNMPv1/v2 implementations are limited to simply a readonly

capability, reducing their utility to that of a network monitor; no network control applications

can be supported. To correct the security deficiencies of SNMPv1/v2, SNMPv3 was issued as a

set of Proposed Standards in January 1998. -> A is correct.

The two additional messages are added in SNMP2 (compared to SNMPv1)

GetBulkRequest The GetBulkRequest message enables an SNMP manager to access large

chunks of data. GetBulkRequest allows an agent to respond with as much information as will fit in

the response PDU. Agents that cannot provide values for all variables in a list will send partial

information. -> E is correct.

InformRequest The InformRequest message allows NMS stations to share trap information. (Traps

are issued by SNMP agents when a device change occurs.) InformRequest messages are

generally used between NMS stations, not between NMS stations and agents. -> C is correct.

Note: These two messages are carried over SNMPv3.

QUESTION NO: 228

Which three are the components of SNMP? (Choose three)

A. MIB

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B. SNMP Manager

C. SysLog Server

D. SNMP Agent

E. Set

Answer: A,B,D

Explanation:

SNMP is an application-layer protocol that provides a message format for communication between

SNMP managers and agents. SNMP provides a standardized framework and a common language

used for the monitoring and management of devices in a network.

The SNMP framework has three parts:

+ An SNMP manager

+ An SNMP agent

+ A Management Information Base (MIB)

The SNMP manager is the system used to control and monitor the activities of network hosts

using SNMP. The most common managing system is called a Network Management System

(NMS). The term NMS can be applied to either a dedicated device used for network management,

or the applications used on such a device. A variety of network management applications are

available for use with SNMP. These features range from simple command-line applications to

feature-rich graphical user interfaces (such as the CiscoWorks2000 line of products).

The SNMP agent is the software component within the managed device that maintains the data for

the device and reports these data, as needed, to managing systems. The agent and MIB reside on

the routing device (router, access server, or switch). To enable the SNMP agent on a Cisco

routing device, you must define the relationship between the manager and the agent.

The Management Information Base (MIB) is a virtual information storage area for network

management information, which consists of collections of managed objects.

QUESTION NO: 229

What are the Popular destinations for syslog messages to be saved? (Choose three)

A. Flash

B. The logging buffer .RAM

C. The console terminal

D. Other terminals

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E. Syslog server

Answer: B,C,E

Explanation:

By default, switches send the output from system messages and debug privileged EXEC

commands to a logging process. The logging process controls the distribution of logging

messages to various destinations, such as the logging buffer (on RAM), terminal lines (console

terminal), or a UNIX syslog server, depending on your configuration. The process also sends

messages to the console.

Note: Syslog messages can be written to a file in Flash memory although it is not a popular place

to use. We can configure this feature with the commandlogging file flash:filename.

QUESTION NO: 230

Syslog was configured with a level 3 trap. Which 3 types of logs would be generated (choose four)

A. Emergencies

B. Alerts

C. Critical

D. Errors

E. Warnings

Answer: A,B,C,D

Explanation:

The Message Logging is divided into 8 levels as listed below:

Level Keyword Description

0 emergencies System is unusable

1 alerts Immediate action is needed

2 critical Critical conditions exist

3 errors Error conditions exist

4 warnings Warning conditions exist

5 notification Normal, but significant, conditions exist

6 informational Informational messages

7 debugging Debugging messages

The highest level is level 0 (emergencies). The lowest level is level 7. If you specify a level with the

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“logging console level” command, that level and all the higher levels will be displayed. For

example, by using the “logging console warnings” command, all the logging of emergencies,

alerts, critical, errors, warnings will be displayed.

QUESTION NO: 231

What are the alert messages generated by SNMP agents called?

A. TRAP

B. INFORM

C. GET

D. SET

Answer: A,B

Explanation:

A TRAP is a SNMP message sent from one application to another (which is typically on a remote

host). Their purpose is merely to notify the other application that something has happened, has

been noticed, etc. The big problem with TRAPs is that they’re unacknowledged so you don’t

actually know if the remote application received your oh-so-important message to it. SNMPv2

PDUs fixed this by introducing the notion of an INFORM, which is nothing more than an

acknowledged TRAP.

QUESTION NO: 232

Which three features are added in SNMPv3 over SNMPv2?

A. Message Integrity

B. Compression

C. Authentication

D. Encryption

E. E. Error Detection

Answer: A,C,D

Explanation:

Cisco IOS software supports the following versions of SNMP:

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+ SNMPv1 – The Simple Network Management Protocol: A Full Internet Standard, defined in RFC

1157. (RFC 1157 replaces the earlier versions that were published as RFC 1067 and RFC 1098.)

Security is based on community strings.

+ SNMPv2c – The community-string based Administrative Framework for SNMPv2. SNMPv2c (the

“c” stands for “community”) is an Experimental Internet Protocol defined in RFC 1901, RFC 1905,

and RFC 1906. SNMPv2c is an update of the protocol operations and data types of SNMPv2p

(SNMPv2 Classic), and uses the community-based security model of SNMPv1.

+ SNMPv3 – Version 3 of SNMP. SNMPv3 is an interoperable standards-based protocol defined

in RFCs 2273 to 2275. SNMPv3 provides secure access to devices by a combination of

authenticating and encrypting packets over the network. The security features provided in

SNMPv3 are as follows:

– Message integrity: Ensuring that a packet has not been tampered with in transit.

– Authentication: Determining that the message is from a valid source.

– Encryption: Scrambling the contents of a packet prevent it from being learned by an

unauthorized source.

QUESTION NO: 233

In a GLBP network, who is responsible for the ARP request?

A. AVF

B. AVG

C. Active Router

D. Standby Router

Answer: B

Explanation:

Members of a GLBP group elect one gateway to be the active virtual gateway (AVG) for that

group. Other group members provide backup for the AVG in the event that the AVG becomes

unavailable. The AVG assigns a virtual MAC address to each member of the GLBP group. Each

gateway assumes responsibility for forwarding packets sent to the virtual MAC address assigned

to it by the AVG. These gateways are known as active virtual forwarders (AVFs)for their virtual

MAC address.

The AVG is responsible for answering Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) requests for the virtual

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IP address. Load sharing is achieved by the AVG replying to the ARP requests with different

virtual MAC addresses.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_2t/12_2t15/feature/guide/ft_glbp.html

Topic 6, Network Device Security

QUESTION NO: 234

A network administrator needs to configure port security on a switch. Which two statements are

true? (Choose two.)

A. The network administrator can apply port security to dynamic access ports.

B. The network administrator can apply port security to EtherChannels.

C. When dynamic MAC address learning is enabled on an interface, the switch can learn new

addresses, up to the maximum defined.

D. The sticky learning feature allows the addition of dynamically learned addresses to the running

configuration.

E. The network administrator can configure static secure or sticky secure MAC addresses in the

voice VLAN.

Answer: C,D

Explanation:

Follow these guidelines when configuring port security:

+ Port security can only be configured on static access ports, trunk ports, or 802.1Q tunnel ports.

+ A secure port cannot be a dynamic access port.

+ A secure port cannot be a destination port for Switched Port Analyzer (SPAN).

+ A secure port cannot belong to a Fast EtherChannel or Gigabit EtherChannel port group.

+ You cannot configure static secure or sticky secure MAC addresses on a voice VLAN.

+ When you enable port security on an interface that is also configured with a voice VLAN, you

must set the maximum allowed secure addresses on the port to at least two.

+ If any type of port security is enabled on the access VLAN, dynamic port security is

automatically enabled on the voice VLAN.

+ When a voice VLAN is configured on a secure port that is also configured as a sticky secure

port, all addresses seen on the voice VLAN are learned as dynamic secure addresses, and all

addresses seen on the access VLAN (to which the port belongs) are learned as sticky secure

addresses.

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+ The switch does not support port security aging of sticky secure MAC addresses.

+ The protect and restrict options cannot be simultaneously enabled on an interface.

(Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3550/software/release/12.1_19_ea1/config

uration/guide/swtrafc.html)

QUESTION NO: 235 DRAG DROP

Drag the security features on the left to the specific security risks they help protect against on the

right. (Not all options are used.)

Answer:

Explanation:

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QUESTION NO: 236

Refer to the exhibit.

A junior network administrator was given the task of configuring port security on SwitchA to allow

only PC_A to access the switched network through port fa0/1. If any other device is detected, the

port is to drop frames from this device. The administrator configured the interface and tested it with

successful pings from PC_A to RouterA, and then observes the output from these two show

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commands.

Which two of these changes are necessary for SwitchA to meet the requirements? (Choose two.)

A. Port security needs to be globally enabled.

B. Port security needs to be enabled on the interface.

C. Port security needs to be configured to shut down the interface in the event of a violation.

D. Port security needs to be configured to allow only one learned MAC address.

E. Port security interface counters need to be cleared before using the show command.

F. The port security configuration needs to be saved to NVRAM before it can become active.

Answer: B,D

Explanation:

From the output we can see that port security is disabled so this needs to be enabled.Also, the

maximum number of devices is set to 2 so this needs to be just one if we want the single host to

have access and nothing else.

QUESTION NO: 237

Which set of commands is recommended to prevent the use of a hub in the access layer?

A. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk

switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1

B. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk

switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1

C. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access

switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1

D. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access

switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1

Answer: C

Explanation:

This question is to examine the layer 2 security configuration.

In order to satisfy the requirements of this question, you should perform the following

configurations in the interface mode:

First, configure the interface mode as the access mode

Second, enable the port security and set the maximum number of connections to 1.

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QUESTION NO: 238

How does using the service password-encryption command on a router provide additional

security?

A. by encrypting all passwords passing through the router

B. by encrypting passwords in the plain text configuration file

C. by requiring entry of encrypted passwords for access to the device

D. by configuring an MD5 encrypted key to be used by routing protocols to validate routing

exchanges

E. by automatically suggesting encrypted passwords for use in configuring the router

Answer: B

Explanation:

By using this command, all the (current and future) passwords are encrypted. This command is

primarily useful for keeping unauthorized individuals from viewing your password in your

configuration file

QUESTION NO: 239

Refer to the exhibit.

Statements A, B, C, and D of ACL 10 have been entered in the shown order and applied to

interface E0 inbound, to prevent all hosts (except those whose addresses are the first and last IP

of subnet 172.21.1.128/28) from accessing the network. But as is, the ACL does not restrict

anyone from the network. How can the ACL statements be re-arranged so that the system works

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as intended?

A. ACDB

B. BADC

C. DBAC

D. CDBA

Answer: D

Explanation:

Routers go line by line through an access list until a match is found and then will not look any

further, even if a more specific of better match is found later on in theaccess list.So, it it best to

begin with the most specific entries first, in this castthe two hosts in line C and D.Then, include the

subnet (B) and then finally the rest of the traffic (A).

QUESTION NO: 240

Refer to the exhibit.

An attempt to deny web access to a subnet blocks all traffic from the subnet. Which interface

command immediately removes the effect of ACL 102?

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A. no ip access-class 102 in

B. no ip access-class 102 out

C. no ip access-group 102 in

D. no ip access-group 102 out

E. no ip access-list 102 in

Answer: D

Explanation:

The “ip access-group” is used toapply and ACL to an interface.From the output shown, we know

that the ACL is applied to outbound traffic, so “no ip access-group 102 out” will remove the effect

of this ACL.

QUESTION NO: 241

Which Cisco Catalyst feature automatically disables the port in an operational PortFast upon

receipt of a BPDU?

A. BackboneFast

B. UplinkFast

C. Root Guard

D. BPDU Guard

E. BPDU Filter

Answer: D

Explanation:

We only enable PortFast feature on access ports (ports connected to end stations). But if

someone does not know he can accidentally plug that port to another switch and a loop may occur

when BPDUs are being transmitted and received on these ports.

With BPDU Guard, when a PortFast receives a BPDU, it will be shut down to prevent a loop.

QUESTION NO: 242

When you are troubleshooting an ACL issue on a router, which command would you use to verify

which interfaces are affected by the ACL?

A. show ip access-lists

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B. show access-lists

C. show interface

D. show ip interface

E. list ip interface

Answer: D

Explanation:

Incorrect answer:

show ip access-lists does not show interfaces affected by an ACL.

QUESTION NO: 243 CORRECT TEXT

A network associate is adding security to the configuration of the Corp1 router. The user on host C

should be able to use a web browser to access financial information from the Finance Web Server.

No other hosts from the LAN nor the Core should be able to use a web browser to access this

server. Since there are multiple resources for the corporation at this location including other

resources on the Finance Web Server, all other traffic should be allowed.

The task is to create and apply an access-list with no more than three statements that will allow

ONLY host C web access to the Finance Web Server. No other hosts will have web access to the

Finance Web Server. All other traffic is permitted.

Access to the router CLI can be gained by clicking on the appropriate host.

All passwords have been temporarily set to "cisco".

The Core connection uses an IP address of 198.18.196.65.

The computers in the Hosts LAN have been assigned addresses of 192.168.33.1 -

192.168.33.254

host A 192.168.33.1

host B 192.168.33.2

host C 192.168.33.3

host D 192.168.33.4

The servers in the Server LAN have been assigned addresses of 172.22.242.17 - 172.22.242.30.

The Finance Web Server is assigned an IP address of 172.22.242.23.

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Answer: Select the console on Corp1 router

Configuring ACL

Corp1>enable

Corp1#configure terminal

comment: To permit only Host C (192.168.33.3){source addr} to access finance server address

(172.22.242.23) {destination addr} on port number 80 (web)

Corp1(config)#access-list 100 permit tcp host 192.168.33.3 host 172.22.242.23 eq 80

comment: To deny any source to access finance server address (172.22.242.23) {destination

addr} on port number 80 (web)

Corp1(config)#access-list 100 deny tcp any host 172.22.242.23 eq 80

comment: To permit ip protocol from any source to access any destination because of the implicit

deny any any statement at the end of ACL.

Corp1(config)#access-list 100 permit ip any any

Applying the ACL on the Interface

comment: Check show ip interface brief command to identify the interface type and number by

checking the IP address configured.

Corp1(config)#interface fa 0/1

If the ip address configured already is incorrect as well as the subnet mask. This should be

corrected in order ACL to work

type this commands at interface mode :

no ip address 192.x.x.x 255.x.x.x (removes incorrect configured ipaddress and subnet mask)

Configure Correct IP Address and subnet mask:

ip address 172.22.242.30 255.255.255.240 ( range of address specified going to server is given as

172.22.242.17 - 172.22.242.30 )

Comment: Place the ACL to check for packets going outside the interface towards the finance web

server.

Corp1(config-if)#ip access-group 100 out

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Corp1(config-if)#end

Important: To save your running config to startup before exit.

Corp1#copy running-config startup-config

Verifying the Configuration:

Step1: show ip interface brief command identifies the interface on which to apply access list.

Step2: Click on each host A, B, C, & D. Host opens a web browser page, Select address box of

the web browser and type the ip address of finance web server (172.22.242.23) to test whether it

permits /deny access to the finance web Server.

Step 3: Only Host C (192.168.33.3) has access to the server. If the other host can also access

then maybe something went wrong in your configuration.Check whether you configured correctly

and in order.

Step 4: If only Host C (192.168.33.3) can access the Finance Web Server you can click on NEXT

button to successfully submit the ACL SIM.

QUESTION NO: 244

Refer to exhibit.

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A network administrator cannot establish a Telnet session with the indicated router. What is the

cause of this failure?

A. A Level 5 password is not set.

B. An ACL is blocking Telnet access.

C. The vty password is missing.

D. The console password is missing.

Answer: C

Explanation:

The login keyword has been set, but not password.This will result in the “password required, but

none set” message to users trying to telnet to this router.

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QUESTION NO: 245

Which statement about access lists that are applied to an interface is true?

A. You can place as many access lists as you want on any interface.

B. You can apply only one access list on any interface.

C. You can configure one access list, per direction, per Layer 3 protocol.

D. You can apply multiple access lists with the same protocol or in different directions.

Answer: C

Explanation:

We can have only 1 access list per protocol, per direction and per interface. It means:

+ We cannot have 2 inbound access lists on an interface

+ We can have 1 inbound and 1 outbound access list on an interface

QUESTION NO: 246

Which item represents the standard IP ACL?

A. access-list 110 permit ip any any

B. access-list 50 deny 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.255

C. access list 101 deny tcp any host 192.168.1.1

D. access-list 2500 deny tcp any host 192.168.1.1 eq 22

Answer: B

Explanation:

The standard access lists are ranged from 1 to 99 and from 1300 to 1999 so only access list 50 is

a standard access list.

QUESTION NO: 247

A network administrator is configuring ACLs on a Cisco router, to allow traffic from hosts on

networks 192.168.146.0, 192.168.147.0, 192.168.148.0, and 192.168.149.0 only. Which two ACL

statements, when combined, would you use to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

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A. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 0.0.1.255

B. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.147.0 0.0.255.255

C. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.148.0 0.0.1.255

D. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.149.0 0.0.255.255

E. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 0.0.0.255

F. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 255.255.255.0

Answer: A,C

Explanation:

“access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 0.0.1.255” would allow only the 192.168.146.0 and

192.168.147.0 networks, and “access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.148.0 0.0.1.255” would allow only

the 192.168.148.0 and 192.168.149.0 networks.

QUESTION NO: 248

What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)

A. Administratively shut down the interface.

B. Physically secure the interface.

C. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group

command.

D. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.

E. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class

command.

Answer: D,E

Explanation:

It is a waste to administratively shut down the interface. Moreover, someone can still access the

virtual terminal interfaces via other interfaces ->

We cannot physically secure a virtual interface because it is “virtual” ->.

To apply an access list to a virtual terminal interface we must use the “access-class” command.

The “access-group” command is only used to apply an access list to a physical interface -> C is

not correct.

The most simple way to secure the virtual terminal interface is to configure a username &

password to prevent unauthorized login.

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QUESTION NO: 249

Which two commands correctly verify whether port security has been configured on port

FastEthernet 0/12 on a switch? (Choose two.)

A. SW1#show port-secure interface FastEthernet 0/12

B. SW1#show switchport port-secure interface FastEthernet 0/12

C. SW1#show running-config

D. SW1#show port-security interface FastEthernet 0/12

E. SW1#show switchport port-security interface FastEthernet 0/12

Answer: C,D

Explanation:

We can verify whether port security has been configured by using the “show running-config” or

“show port-security interface” for more detail. An example of the output of “show port-security

interface” command is shown below:

QUESTION NO: 250

Refer to the exhibit.

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The following commands are executed on interface fa0/1 of 2950Switch.

2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security

2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky

2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 1

The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives on interface fa0/1. What two functions will occur when

this frame is received by 2950Switch? (Choose two.)

A. The MAC address table will now have an additional entry of fa0/1 FFFF.FFFF.FFFF.

B. Only host A will be allowed to transmit frames on fa0/1.

C. This frame will be discarded when it is received by 2950Switch.

D. All frames arriving on 2950Switch with a destination of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be forwarded out

fa0/1.

E. Hosts B and C may forward frames out fa0/1 but frames arriving from other switches will not be

forwarded out fa0/1.

F. Only frames from source 0000.00bb.bbbb, the first learned MAC address of 2950Switch, will be

forwarded out fa0/1.

Answer: B,D

Explanation:

The configuration shown here is an example of port security, specifically port security using sticky

addresses. You can use port security with dynamically learned and static MAC addresses to

restrict a port's ingress traffic by limiting the MAC addresses that are allowed to send traffic into

the port. When you assign secure MAC addresses to a secure port, the port does not forward

ingress traffic that has source addresses outside the group of defined addresses. If you limit the

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number of secure MAC addresses to one and assign a single secure MAC address, the device

attached to that port has the full bandwidth of the port.

Port security with sticky MAC addresses provides many of the same benefits as port security with

static MAC addresses, but sticky MAC addresses can be learned dynamically. Port security with

sticky MAC addresses retains dynamically learned MAC addresses during a link-down condition.

QUESTION NO: 251

What will be the result if the following configuration commands are implemented on a Cisco

switch?

Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security

Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky

A. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the startup-configuration file.

B. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the running-configuration file.

C. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the VLAN database.

D. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the startup-configuration file if frames from

that address are received.

E. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the running-configuration file if frames from

that address are received.

Answer: B

Explanation:

In the interface configuration mode, the command switchport port-security mac-address sticky

enables sticky learning. When entering this command, the interface converts all the dynamic

secure MAC addresses to sticky secure MAC addresses.

Topic 7, Troubleshooting

QUESTION NO: 252 DRAG DROP

Drag each category on the left to its corresponding router output line on the right. Each router

output line is the result of a show ip interface command. Not all categories are used.

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Answer:

Explanation:

A simple way to find out which layer is having problem is to remember this rule: “the first statement

is for Layer 1, the last statement is for Layer 2 and if Layer 1 is down then surely Layer 2 will be

down too”, so you have to check Layer 1 before checking Layer 2. For example, from the output

“Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is down” we know that it is a layer 2 problem because the first

statement (Serial0/1 is up) is good while the last statement (line protocol is down) is bad. For the

statement “Serial0/1 is down, line protocol is down”, both layers are down so the problem belongs

to Layer 1.

There is only one special case with the statement “…. is administrator down, line protocol is

down”. In this case, we know that the port is currently disabled and shut down by the

administrators.

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QUESTION NO: 253 DRAG DROP

A user is unable to connect to the Internet. Based on the layered approach to troubleshooting and

beginning with the lowest layer, drag each procedure on the left to its proper category on the right.

Answer:

Explanation:

The question asks us to “begin with the lowest layer” so we have to begin with Layer 1: verify

physical connection; in this case an Ethernet cable connection. For your information, “verify

Ethernet cable connection” means that we check if the type of connection (crossover, straightthrough,

rollover…) is correct, the RJ45 headers are plugged in, the signal on the cable is

acceptable…

Next we “verify NIC operation”. We do this by simply making a ping to the loopback interface

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127.0.0.1. If it works then the NIC card (layer 1, 2) and TCP/IP stack (layer 3) are working

properly.

Verify IP configuration belongs to layer 3. For example, checking if the IP can be assignable for

host, the PC’s IP is in the same network with the gateway…

Verifying the URL by typing in your browser some popular websites like google.com,

microsoft.com to assure that the far end server is not down (it sometimes make we think we can’t

access to the Internet). We are using a URL so this step belongs to layer 7 of the OSI model.

QUESTION NO: 254

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator attempts to ping Host2 from Host1 and receives the results that are

shown. What is the problem?

A. The link between Host1 and Switch1 is down.

B. TCP/IP is not functioning on Host1

C. The link between Router1 and Router2 is down.

D. The default gateway on Host1 is incorrect.

E. Interface Fa0/0 on Router1 is shutdown.

F. The link between Switch1 and Router1 is down.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Host1 tries to communicate with Host2. The message destination host unreachable from Router1

indicates that the problem occurs when the data is forwarded from Host1 to Host2. According to

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the topology, we can infer that the link between Router1 and Router2 is down.

QUESTION NO: 255

Refer to the exhibit.

Hosts in network 192.168.2.0 are unable to reach hosts in network 192.168.3.0. Based on the

output from RouterA, what are two possible reasons for the failure? (Choose two.)

A. The cable that is connected to S0/0 on RouterA is faulty.

B. Interface S0/0 on RouterB is administratively down.

C. Interface S0/0 on RouterA is configured with an incorrect subnet mask.

D. The IP address that is configured on S0/0 of RouterB is not in the correct subnet.

E. Interface S0/0 on RouterA is not receiving a clock signal from the CSU/DSU.

F. The encapsulation that is configured on S0/0 of RouterB does not match the encapsulation that

is configured on S0/0 of RouterA.

Answer: E,F

Explanation:

From the output we can see that there is a problemwith the Serial 0/0 interface.It is enabled, but

the line protocol is down. Therecould be a result of mismatched encapsulation or the interface not

receiving a clock signal from the CSU/DSU.

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QUESTION NO: 256

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator pings the default gateway at 10.10.10.1 and sees the output as shown. At which

OSI layer is the problem?

A. data link layer

B. application layer

C. access layer

D. session layer

E. network layer

Answer: E

Explanation:

The command ping uses ICMP protocol, which is a network layer protocol used to propagate

control message between host and router. The command ping is often used to verify the network

connectivity, so it works at the network layer.

QUESTION NO: 257

Refer to the exhibit.

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The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most

effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)

A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.

B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.

C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.

D. Ensure the switch has power.

E. Reboot all of the devices.

F. Reseat all cables.

Answer: B,D,F

Explanation:

The ports on the switch are not up indicating it is a layer 1 (physical) problem so we should check

cable type, power and how they are plugged in.

QUESTION NO: 258

Refer to the exhibit.

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The network shown in the diagram is experiencing connectivity problems. Which of the following

will correct the problems? (Choose two.)

A. Configure the gateway on Host A as 10.1.1.1.

B. Configure the gateway on Host B as 10.1.2.254.

C. Configure the IP address of Host A as 10.1.2.2.

D. Configure the IP address of Host B as 10.1.2.2.

E. Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255.255.255.224.

F. Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255.255.255.240.

Answer: B,D

Explanation:

The switch 1 is configured with two VLANs: VLAN1 and VLAN2.

The IP information of member Host A in VLAN1 is as follows:

Address : 10.1.1.126

Mask : 255.255.255.0

Gateway : 10.1.1.254

The IP information of member Host B in VLAN2 is as follows:

Address : 10.1.1.12

Mask : 255.255.255.0

Gateway : 10.1.1.254

The configuration of sub-interface on router 2 is as follows:

Fa0/0.1 -- 10.1.1.254/24 VLAN1

Fa0/0.2 -- 10.1.2.254/24 VLAN2

It is obvious that the configurations of the gateways of members in VLAN2 and the associated

network segments are wrong. The layer3 addressing information of Host B should be modified as

follows:

Address : 10.1.2.X

Mask : 255.255.255.0

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QUESTION NO: 259

Refer to the exhibit.

A problem with network connectivity has been observed. It is suspected that the cable connected

to switch port Fa0/9 on Switch1 is disconnected. What would be an effect of this cable being

disconnected?

A. Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9 until the cable is reconnected.

B. Communication between VLAN3 and the other VLANs would be disabled.

C. The transfer of files from Host B to the server in VLAN9 would be significantly slower.

D. For less than a minute, Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9. Then normal

network function would resume.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Spanning-Tree Protocol (STP) is a Layer 2 protocol that utilizes a special-purpose algorithm to

discover physical loops in a network and effect a logical loop-free topology. STP creates a loopfree

tree structure consisting of leaves and branches that span the entire Layer 2 network. The

actual mechanics of how bridges communicate and how the STP algorithm works will be

discussed at length in the following topics. Note that the terms bridge and switch are used

interchangeably when discussing STP. In addition, unless otherwise indicated, connections

between switches are assumed to be trunks.

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QUESTION NO: 260

Refer to the exhibit.

HostA cannot ping HostB. Assuming routing is properly configured, what is the cause of this

problem?

A. HostA is not on the same subnet as its default gateway.

B. The address of SwitchA is a subnet address.

C. The Fa0/0 interface on RouterA is on a subnet that can't be used.

D. The serial interfaces of the routers are not on the same subnet.

E. The Fa0/0 interface on RouterB is using a broadcast address.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Now let’s find out the range of the networks on serial link:

For the network 192.168.1.62/27:

Increment: 32

Network address: 192.168.1.32

Broadcast address: 192.168.1.63

For the network 192.168.1.65/27:

Increment: 32

Network address: 192.168.1.64

Broadcast address: 192.168.1.95

-> These two IP addresses don’t belong to the same network and they can’t see each other.

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QUESTION NO: 261

Which router IOS commands can be used to troubleshoot LAN connectivity problems? (Choose

three.)

A. ping

B. tracert

C. ipconfig

D. show ip route

E. winipcfg

F. show interfaces

Answer: A,D,F

Explanation:

Ping, show ip route, and show interfaces are all validtroubleshooting IOS commands.Tracert,

ipconfig, and winipcfg are PC commands, not IOS.

QUESTION NO: 262

A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The

routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link.

The graphic shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2.

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Based on the information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem?

A. The OSPF area is not configured properly.

B. The priority on R1 should be set higher.

C. The cost on R1 should be set higher.

D. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly.

E. A backup designated router needs to be added to the network.

F. The OSPF process ID numbers must match.

Answer: D

Explanation:

In OSPF, the hello and dead intervals must match and here we can see the hello intervalis set to 5

on R1 and 10 on R2.The dead interval is also set to 20 on R1 but it is 40 on R2.

QUESTION NO: 263

In which circumstance are multiple copies of the same unicast frame likely to be transmitted in a

switched LAN?

A. during high traffic periods

B. after broken links are re-established

C. when upper-layer protocols require high reliability

D. in an improperly implemented redundant topology

E. when a dual ring topology is in use

Answer: D

Explanation:

If we connect two switches via 2 or more links and do not enable STP on these switches then a

loop (which creates multiple copies of the same unicast frame) will occur. It is an example of an

improperly implemented redundant topology.

QUESTION NO: 264

An administrator is trying to ping and telnet from SwitchC to RouterC with the results shown below.

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Click the console connected to RouterC and issue the appropriate commands to answer the

questions.

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Which will fix the issue and allow ONLY ping to work while keeping telnet disabled?

A. Correctly assign an IP address to interface fa0/1.

B. Change the ip access-group command on fa0/0 from “in” to “out”.

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C. Removeaccess-group 106 infrom interface fa0/0 and addaccess-group 115 in.

D. Removeaccess-group 102 outfrom interface s0/0/0 and addaccess-group 114 in

E. Removeaccess-group 106 infrom interface fa0/0 and addaccess-group 104 in.

Answer: E

Explanation:

Let’s have a look at the access list 104:

The question does not ask about ftp traffic so we don’t care about the two first lines. The 3rd line

denies all telnet traffic and the 4th line allows icmp traffic to be sent (ping). Remember that the

access list 104 is applied on the inbound direction so the 5th line “access-list 104 deny icmp any

any echo-reply” will not affect our icmp traffic because the “echo-reply” message will be sent over

the outbound direction.

QUESTION NO: 265

An administrator is trying to ping and telnet from SwitchC to RouterC with the results shown below.

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Click the console connected to RouterC and issue the appropriate commands to answer the

questions.

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What would be the effect of issuing the command ip access-group 114 in to the fa0/0 interface?

A. Attempts to telnet to the router would fail.

B. It would allow all traffic from the 10.4.4.0 network.

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C. IP traffic would be passed through the interface but TCP and UDP traffic would not.

D. Routing protocol updates for the 10.4.4.0 network would not be accepted from the fa0/0

interface.

Answer: B

Explanation:

From the output of access-list 114: access-list 114 permit ip 10.4.4.0 0.0.0.255 any we can easily

understand that this access list allows all traffic (ip) from 10.4.4.0/24 network

QUESTION NO: 266

An administrator is trying to ping and telnet from SwitchC to RouterC with the results shown below.

Click the console connected to RouterC and issue the appropriate commands to answer the

questions.

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What would be the effect of issuing the command ip access-group 115 in on the s0/0/1 interface?

A. No host could connect to RouterC through s0/0/1.

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B. Telnet and ping would work but routing updates would fail.

C. FTP, FTP-DATA, echo, and www would work but telnet would fail.

D. Only traffic from the 10.4.4.0 network would pass through the interface.

Answer: A

Explanation:

First let’s see what was configured on interface S0/0/1:

QUESTION NO: 267 CORRECT TEXT

CCNA.com has a small network that is using EIGRP as its IGP. All routers should be running an

EIGRP AS number of 12. Router MGT is also running static routing to the ISP.

CCNA.com has recently added the ENG router. Currently, the ENG router does not have

connectivity to the ISP router. All over interconnectivity and Internet access for the existing

locations of the company are working properly.

The task is to identify the fault(s) and correct the router configuration(s) to provide full connectivity

between the routers.

Access to the router CLI can be gained by clicking on the appropriate host.

All passwords on all routers are cisco.

IP addresses are listed in the chart below.

MGT

Fa0/0 – 192.168.77.33

S1/0 – 198.0.18.6

S0/0 – 192.168.27.9

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S0/1 – 192.168.50.21

ENG

Fa0/0 – 192.168.77.34

Fa1/0 – 192.168.12.17

Fa0/1 – 192.168.12.1

Parts1

Fa0/0 – 192.168.12.33

Fa0/1 – 192.168.12.49

S0/0 – 192.168.27.10

Parts2

Fa0/0 – 192.168.12.65

Fa0/1 – 192.168.12.81

S0/1 – 192.168.50.22

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Answer: On the MGT Router:

Config t

Router eigrp 12

Network 192.168.77.0

QUESTION NO: 268 CORRECT TEXT

The following have already been configured on the router:

The basic router configuration

The appropriate interfaces have been configured for NAT inside and NAT outside.

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The appropriate static routes have also been configured (since the company will be a stub

network, no routing protocol will be required)

All passwords have been temporarily set to “cisco”.

The task is to complete the NAT configuration using all IP addresses assigned by the ISP to

provide Internet access for the hosts in the Weaver LAN. Functionality can be tested by clicking on

the host provided for testing.

Configuration information:

router name – Weaver

inside global addresses – 198.18.184.105 - 198.18.184.110/29

inside local addresses - 192.168.100.17 – 192.168.100.30/28

number of inside hosts – 14

A network associate is configuring a router for the weaver company to provide internet access.

The ISP has provided the company six public IP addresses of 198.18.184.105 198.18.184.110.

The company has 14 hosts that need to access the internet simultaneously. The hosts in the

company LAN have been assigned private space addresses in the range of 192.168.100.17 –

192.168.100.30.

Answer: The company has 14 hosts that need to access the internet simultaneously butwe just

have 6 public IP addresses from 198.18.184.105 to 198.18.184.110/29.

Therefore we have to use NAT overload (or PAT)

Double click on the Weaver router to open it

Router>enable

Router#configure terminal

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First you should change the router's name to Weaver

Router(config)#hostname Weaver

Create a NAT pool of global addresses to be allocated with their netmask.

Weaver(config)#ip nat pool mypool 198.18.184.105 198.18.184.110 netmask

255.255.255.248

Create a standard access control list that permits the addresses that are to betranslated.

Weaver(config)#access-list 1 permit 192.168.100.16 0.0.0.15

Establish dynamic source translation, specifying the access list that was definedin the prior step.

Weaver(config)#ip nat inside source list 1 pool mypool overload

This command translates all source addresses that pass access list 1, whichmeans a source

address from 192.168.100.17 to 192.168.100.30, into anaddress from the pool named mypool (the

pool contains addresses from198.18.184.105 to 198.18.184.110).

Overloadkeyword allows to map multiple IP addresses to a single registered IPaddress (many-toone)

by using different ports.

The question said that appropriate interfaces have been configured for NATinside and NAT

outside statements.

This is how to configure the NAT inside and NAT outside, just for yourunderstanding:

Weaver(config)#interface fa0/0

Weaver(config-if)#ip nat inside

Weaver(config-if)#exit

Weaver(config)#interface s0/0

Weaver(config-if)#ip nat outside

Weaver(config-if)#end

Finally, we should save all your work with the following command:

Weaver#copy running-config startup-config

Check your configuration by going to "Host for testing" and type:

C :\>ping 192.0.2.114

The ping should work well and you will be replied from 192.0.2.114

QUESTION NO: 269 CORRECT TEXT

Central Florida Widgets recently installed a new router in their office. Complete the network

installation by performing the initial router configurations and configuring R1PV2 routing using the

router command line interface (CLI) on the RC.

Configure the router per the following requirements:

Name of the router is R2

Enable. secret password is cisco

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The password to access user EXEC mode using the console is cisco2

The password to allow telnet access to the router is cisco3

IPV4 addresses must be configured as follows:

Ethernet network 209.165.201.0/27 - router has fourth assignable host address in subnet

Serial network is 192.0.2.176/28 - router has last assignable host address in the subnet.

Interfaces should be enabled.

Router protocol is RIPV2

Attention:

In practical examinations, please note the following, the actual information will prevail.

1. Name or the router is xxx

2. Enable. secret password is xxx

3. Password In access user EXEC mode using the console is xxx

4. The password to allow telnet access to the router is xxx

5. IP information

Answer: Router>enable

Router#config terminal

Router(config)#hostnameR2

R2(config)#enable secret Cisco 1

R2(config)#line console 0

R2(config-line)#passwordCisco 2

R2(config-line)#exit

R2(config)#line vty 0 4

R2(config-line)#passwordCisco 3

R2(config-line)#login

R2(config-line)#exit

R2(config)#interface faO/0

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R2(config-if)#ip address 209.165.201.4 255.255.255.224

R2(config)#interface s0/0/0

R2(config-if)#ip address 192.0.2.190 255.255.255.240

R2(config-if)#no shutdown

R2(config-if)#exit

R2(config)#router rip

R2(config-router)#version 2

R2(config-router)#network 209.165.201.0

R2(config-router)#network 192.0.2.176

R2(config-router)#end

R2#copy run start

QUESTION NO: 270 CORRECT TEXT

A network associate is adding security to the configuration of the Corp1 router. The user on host C

should be able to use a web browser to access financial information from the Finance Web Server.

No other hosts from the LAN nor the Core should be able to use a web browser to access this

server. Since there are multiple resources for the corporation at this location including other

resources on the Finance Web Server, all other traffic should be allowed.

The task is to create and apply an access-list with no more than three statements that will allow

ONLY host C web access to the Finance Web Server. No other hosts will have web access to the

Finance Web Server. All other traffic is permitted.

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Access to the router CLI can be gained by clicking on the appropriate host.

All passwords have been temporarily set to "cisco".

The Core connection uses an IP address of 198.18.247.65

The computers in the Hosts LAN have been assigned addresses of 192.168.240.1 -

192.168.240.254

host A 192.168.240.1

host B 192.168.240.2

host C 192.168.240.3

Answer: Corp1#conf t

Corp1(config)# access-list 128 permit tcp host 192.168.240.1 host 172.22.141.26 eq www

Corp1(config)# access-list 128 deny tcp any host 172.22.141.26 eq www

Corp1(config)# access-list 128 permit ip any any

Corp1(config)#int fa0/1

Corp1(config-if)#ip access-group 128 out

Corp1(config-if)#end

Corp1#copy run startup-config

QUESTION NO: 271

What are three reasons to collect Netflow data on a company network? (Choose three.)

A. To identify applications causing congestion.

B. To authorize user network access.

C. To report and alert link up / down instances.

D. To diagnose slow network performance, bandwidth hogs, and bandwidth utilization.

E. To detect suboptimal routing in the network.

F. To confirm the appropriate amount of bandwidth that has been allocated to each Class of

Service.

Answer: A,D,F

Explanation:

NetFlow facilitates solutions to many common problems encountered by IT professionals.

+ Analyze new applications and their network impact

Identify new application network loads such as VoIP or remote site additions.

+ Reduction in peak WAN traffic

Use NetFlow statistics to measure WAN traffic improvement from application-policy changes;

understand who is utilizing the network and the network top talkers.

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+ Troubleshooting and understanding network pain points

Diagnose slow network performance, bandwidth hogs and bandwidth utilization quickly with

command line interface or reporting tools. -> D is correct.

+ Detection of unauthorized WAN traffic

Avoid costly upgrades by identifying the applications causing congestion. -> A is correct.

+ Security and anomaly detection

NetFlow can be used for anomaly detection and worm diagnosis along with applications such as

Cisco CS-Mars.

+ Validation of QoS parameters

Confirm that appropriate bandwidth has been allocated to each Class of Service (CoS) and that no

CoS is over- or under-subscribed.-> F is correct.

QUESTION NO: 272

What Netflow component can be applied to an interface to track IPv4 traffic?

A. flow monitor

B. flow record

C. flow sampler

D. flow exporter

Answer: A

Explanation:

Flow monitors are the Flexible NetFlow component that is applied to interfaces to perform network

traffic monitoring. Flow monitors consist of a record and a cache. You add the record to the flow

monitor after you create the flow monitor. The flow monitor cache is automatically created at the

time the flow monitor is applied to the first interface. Flow data is collected from the network traffic

during the monitoring process based on the key and nonkey fields in the record, which is

configured for the flow monitor and stored in the flow monitor cache.

For example, the following example creates a flow monitor named FLOW-MONITOR-1 and enters

Flexible NetFlow flow monitor configuration mode:

Router(config)# flow monitor FLOW-MONITOR-1

Router(config-flow-monitor)#

QUESTION NO: 273

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What Cisco IOS feature can be enabled to pinpoint an application that is causing slow network

performance?

A. SNMP

B. Netflow

C. WCCP

D. IP SLA

Answer: B

Explanation:

Netflow can be used to diagnose slow network performance, bandwidth hogs and bandwidth

utilization quickly with command line interface or reporting tools.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/ios-nx-os-software/iosnetflow/

prod_white_paper0900aecd80406232.html

QUESTION NO: 274

What command visualizes the general NetFlow data on the command line?

A. show ip flow export

B. show ip flow top-talkers

C. show ip cache flow

D. show mls sampling

E. show mls netflow ip

Answer: C

Explanation:

The following is an example of how to visualize the NetFlow data using the CLI. There are three

methods to visualize the data depending on the version of Cisco IOS Software. The traditional

show command for NetFlow is "show ip cache flow" also available are two forms of top talker

commands. One of the top talkers commands uses a static configuration to view top talkers in the

network and another command called dynamic top talkers allows real-time sorting and aggregation

of NetFlow data. Also shown is a show MLS command to view the hardware cache on the Cisco

Catalyst 6500 Series Switch.

The following is the original NetFlow show command used for many years in Cisco IOS Software.

Information provided includes packet size distribution; basic statistics about number of flows and

export timer setting, a view of the protocol distribution statistics and the NetFlow cache.

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The “show ip cache flow” command displays a summary of the NetFlow accounting statistics.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/ios-nx-os-software/iosnetflow/

prod_white_paper0900aecd80406232.html

QUESTION NO: 275

What are three values that must be the same within a sequence of packets for Netflow to consider

them a network flow? (Choose three.)

A. source IP address

B. source MAC address

C. egress interface

D. ingress interface

E. destination IP address

F. IP next-hop

Answer: A,D,E

Explanation:

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Each packet that is forwarded within a router or switch is examined for a set of IP packet

attributes. These attributes are the IP packet identity or fingerprint of the packet and determine if

the packet is unique or similar to other packets.

Traditionally, an IP Flow is based on a set of 5 and up to 7 IP packet attributes.

IP Packet attributes used by NetFlow:

• IP source address

• IP destination address

• Source port

• Destination port

• Layer 3 protocol type

• Class of Service

• Router or switch interface

All packets with the same source/destination IP address, source/destination ports, protocol

interface and class of service are grouped into a flow and then packets and bytes are tallied. This

methodology of fingerprinting or determining a flow is scalable because a large amount of network

information is condensed into a database of NetFlow information called the NetFlow cache.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/ios-nx-os-software/iosnetflow/

prod_white_paper0900aecd80406232.html

QUESTION NO: 276

What are three factors a network administrator must consider before implementing Netflow in the

network? (Choose three.)

A. CPU utilization

B. where Netflow data will be sent

C. number of devices exporting Netflow data

D. port availability

E. SNMP version

F. WAN encapsulation

Answer: A,B,C

Explanation:

NetFlow has a reputation for increasing CPU utilization on your network devices. Cisco's

performance testing seems to indicate that newer hardware can accommodate this load pretty

well, but you will still want to check it out before you turn on the feature. Some symptoms of high

CPU utilization are very large jitter and increased delay. Services running on the device may also

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be affected.

Another thing to keep in mind is the amount of data you're going to be sending across the network.

Depending on how much traffic you have and how you configure it, the traffic can be substantial.

For example, you may not want to send NetFlow data from a datacenter switch to a NetFlow

collector on the other side of a small WAN circuit. Also bear in mind that the flows from

aggregating large numbers of devices can add up.

Reference: http://searchenterprisewan.techtarget.com/tip/How-the-NetFlow-protocol-monitorsyour-

WAN

QUESTION NO: 277

Refer to the exhibit.

If the devices produced the given output, what is the cause of the EtherChannel problem?

A. SW1's Fa0/1 interface is administratively shut down.

B. There is an encapsulation mismatch between SW1's Fa0/1 and SW2's Fa0/1 interfaces.

C. There is an MTU mismatch between SW1's Fa0/1 and SW2's Fa0/1 interfaces.

D. There is a speed mismatch between SW1's Fa0/1 and SW2's Fa0/1 interfaces.

Answer: D

Explanation:

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You must configure all interfaces in an EtherChannel to operate at the same speeds and duplex

modes.Based on the output shown, SW1 is configured to run at 10Mb while SW2 is operating at

100 Mb.

QUESTION NO: 278

What are the benefits of using Netflow? (Choose three.)

A. Network,Application & User Monitoring

B. Network Planning

C. Security Analysis

D. Accounting/Billing

Answer: A,C,D

Explanation:

NetFlow traditionally enables several key customer applications including:

+ Network Monitoring – NetFlow data enables extensive near real time network monitoring

capabilities. Flow-based analysis techniques may be utilized to visualize traffic patterns associated

with individual routers and switches as well as on a network-wide basis (providing aggregate traffic

or application based views) to provide proactive problem detection, efficient troubleshooting, and

rapid problem resolution.

+ Application Monitoring and Profiling – NetFlow data enables network managers to gain a

detailed, time-based, view of application usage over the network. This information is used to plan,

understand new services, and allocate network and application resources (e.g. Web server sizing

and VoIP deployment) to responsively meet customer demands.

+ User Monitoring and Profiling – NetFlow data enables network engineers to gain detailed

understanding of customer/user utilization of network and application resources. This information

may then be utilized to efficiently plan and allocate access, backbone and application resources as

well as to detect and resolve potential security and policy violations.

+ Network Planning – NetFlow can be used to capture data over a long period of time producing

the opportunity to track and anticipate network growth and plan upgrades to increase the number

of routing devices, ports, or higher- bandwidth interfaces. NetFlow services data optimizes network

planning including peering, backbone upgrade planning, and routing policy planning. NetFlow

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helps to minimize the total cost of network operations while maximizing network performance,

capacity, and reliability. NetFlow detects unwanted WAN traffic, validates bandwidth and Quality of

Service (QOS) and allows the analysis of new network applications. NetFlow will give you valuable

information to reduce the cost of operating your network.

+ Security Analysis – NetFlow identifies and classifies DDOS attacks, viruses and worms in realtime.

Changes in network behavior indicate anomalies that are clearly demonstrated in NetFlow

data. The data is also a valuable forensic tool to understand and replay the history of security

incidents.

+ Accounting/Billing – NetFlow data provides fine-grained metering (e.g. flow data includes details

such as IP addresses, packet and byte counts, timestamps, type-of-service and application ports,

etc.) for highly flexible and detailed resource utilization accounting. Service providers may utilize

the information for billing based on time-of-day, bandwidth usage, application usage, quality of

service, etc. Enterprise customers may utilize the information for departmental charge-back or cost

allocation for resource utilization.

QUESTION NO: 279

Which protocol can cause overload on a CPU of a managed device?

A. Netflow

B. WCCP

C. IP SLA

D. SNMP

Answer: D

Explanation:

Sometimes, messages like this might appear in the router console:

%SNMP-3-CPUHOG: Processing [chars] of [chars]

They mean that the SNMP agent on the device has taken too much time to process a request.

You can determine the cause of high CPU use in a router by using the output of the show process

cpu command.

Note: A managed device is a part of the network that requires some form of monitoring and

management (routers, switches, servers, workstations, printers…).

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QUESTION NO: 280

What are the three things that the Netflow uses to consider the traffic to be in a same flow?

(Choose three)

A. IP address

B. Interface name

C. Port numbers

D. L3 protocol type

E. MAC address

Answer: A,C,D

Explanation:

What is an IP Flow?

Each packet that is forwarded within a router or switch is examined for a set of IP packet

attributes. These attributes are the IP packet identity or fingerprint of the packet and determine if

the packet is unique or similar to other packets.

Traditionally, an IP Flow is based on a set of 5 and up to 7 IP packet attributes.

IP Packet attributes used by NetFlow:

+ IP source address

+ IP destination address

+ Source port

+ Destination port

+ Layer 3 protocol type

+ Class of Service

+ Router or switch interface

QUESTION NO: 281

Scenario:

Refer to the topology. Your company has decided to connect the main office with three other

remote branch offices using point-to-point serial links.

You are required to troubleshoot and resolve OSPF neighbor adjacency issues between the main

office and the routers located in the remote branch offices.

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An OSPF neighbor adjacency is not formed between R3 in the main office and R4 in the Branch1

office. What is causing the problem?

A. There is an area ID mismatch.

B. There is a Layer 2 issue; an encapsulation mismatch on serial links.

C. There is an OSPF hello and dead interval mismatch.

D. The R3 router ID is configured on R4.

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Answer: A

Explanation:

A show running-config command on R3 and R4 shows that R4 is incorrectly configured for area 2:

QUESTION NO: 282

Scenario

Refer to the topology. Your company has decided to connect the main office with three other

remote branch offices using point-to-point serial links.

You are required to troubleshoot and resolve OSPF neighbor adjacency issues between the main

office and the routers located in the remote branch offices.

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An OSPF neighbor adjacency is not formed between R3 in the main office and R5 in the Branch2

office. What is causing the problem?

A. There is an area ID mismatch.

B. There is a PPP authentication issue; a password mismatch.

C. There is an OSPF hello and dead interval mismatch.

D. There is a missing network command in the OSPF process on R5.

Answer: C

Explanation:

The “show ip ospf interface command on R3 and R5 shows that the hello and dead intervals do

not match.They are 50 and 200 on R3 and 10 and 40 on R5.

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QUESTION NO: 283

Scenario:

Refer to the topology. Your company has decided to connect the main office with three other

remote branch offices using point-to-point serial links.

You are required to troubleshoot and resolve OSPF neighbor adjacency issues between the main

office and the routers located in the remote branch offices.

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R1 does not form an OSPF neighbor adjacency with R2. Which option would fix the issue?

A. R1 ethernet0/1 is shutdown. Configure no shutdown command.

B. R1 ethernet0/1 configured with a non-default OSPF hello interval of 25;configure no ip ospf

hello-interval 25.

C. R2 ethernet0/1 and R3 ethernet0/0are configured with a non-default OSPF hello interval of 25;

configure no ip ospf hello-interval 25.

D. Enable OSPF for R1 ethernet0/1; configure ip ospf 1 area 0 command under ethernet0/1.

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Answer: B

Explanation:

Looking at the configuration of R1, we see that R1 is configured with a hello interval of 25 on

interface Ethernet 0/1 while R2 is left with the default of 10 (not configured).

QUESTION NO: 284

Scenario

Refer to the topology. Your company has decided to connect the main office with three other

remote branch offices using point-to-point serial links.

You are required to troubleshoot and resolve OSPF neighbor adjacency issues between the main

office and the routers located in the remote branch offices.

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An OSPF neighbor adjacency is not formed between R3 in the main office and R6 in the Branch3

office. What is causing the problem?

A. There is an area ID mismatch.

B. There is a PPP authentication issue; the username is not configured on R3 and R6.

C. There is an OSPF hello and dead interval mismatch.

D. The R3 router ID is configured on R6.

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Answer: D

Explanation:

Using the show running-config command we see that R6 has been incorrectly configured with the

same router ID as R3 under the router OSPF process.

QUESTION NO: 285

Scenario

Refer to the topology. Your company has connected the routers R1, R2, and R3 with serial links.

R2 and R3 are connected to the switches SW1 and SW2, respectively. SW1 and SW2 are also

connected to the routers R4 and R5.

The EIGRP routing protocol is configured.

You are required to troubleshoot and resolve the EIGRP issues between the various routers.

Use the appropriate show commands to troubleshoot the issues.

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The loopback interfaces on R4 with the IP addresses of 10.4.4.4/32, 10.4.4.5/32, and 10.4.4.6/32

are not appearing in the routing table of R5. Why are the interfaces missing?

A. The interfaces are shutdown, so they are not being advertised.

B. R4 has been incorrectly configured to be in another AS, so it does not peer with R5.

C. Automatic summarization is enabled, so only the 10.0.0.0 network is displayed.

D. The loopback addresses haven't been advertised, and the network command is missing on R4.

Answer: B

Explanation:

For an EIGRP neighbor to form, the following must match:

- Neighbors must be in the same subnet

- K values

- AS numbers

- Authentication method and key strings

Here, we see that R4 is configured for EIGRP AS 2, when it should be AS 1.

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QUESTION NO: 286

Scenario

Refer to the topology. Your company has connected the routers R1, R2, and R3 with serial links.

R2 and R3 are connected to the switches SW1 and SW2, respectively. SW1 and SW2 are also

connected to the routers R4 and R5.

The EIGRP routing protocol is configured.

You are required to troubleshoot and resolve the EIGRP issues between the various routers.

Use the appropriate show commands to troubleshoot the issues.

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Which path does traffic take from R1 to R5?

A. The traffic goes through R2.

B. The traffic goes through R3.

C. The traffic is equally load-balanced over R2 and R3.

D. The traffic is unequally load-balanced over R2 and R3.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Using the “show ip int brief command” on R5 we can see the IP addresses assigned to this

router.Then, using the “show ip route” command on R1 we can see that to reach 10.5.5.5 and

10.5.5.55 the preferred path is via Serial 1/3, which we see from the diagram is the link to R2.

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QUESTION NO: 287

Scenario

Refer to the topology. Your company has connected the routers R1, R2, and R3 with serial links.

R2 and R3 are connected to the switches SW1 and SW2, respectively. SW1 and SW2 are also

connected to the routers R4 and R5.

The EIGRP routing protocol is configured.

You are required to troubleshoot and resolve the EIGRP issues between the various routers.

Use the appropriate show commands to troubleshoot the issues.

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Router R6 does not form an EIGRP neighbor relationship correctly with router R1. What is the

cause for this misconfiguration?

A. The K values mismatch.

B. The AS does not match.

C. The network command is missing.

D. The passiveinterface command is enabled.

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Answer: C

Explanation:

The link from R1 to R6 is shown below:

As you cansee, they are both using e0/0.The IP addresses are in the 192.168.16.0 network:

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But when we look at the EIGRP configuration, the “network 192.168.16.0” command is missing on

R6.

QUESTION NO: 288

Scenario

Refer to the topology. Your company has connected the routers R1, R2, and R3 with serial links.

R2 and R3 are connected to the switches SW1 and SW2, respectively. SW1 and SW2 are also

connected to the routers R4 and R5.

The EIGRP routing protocol is configured.

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You are required to troubleshoot and resolve the EIGRP issues between the various routers.

Use the appropriate show commands to troubleshoot the issues.

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Study the following output taken on R1:

R1# Ping 10.5.5.55 source 10.1.1.1

Type escape sequence to abort.

Sending 5, 100-byte ICMP Echos to 10.5.5.55, timeout is 2 seconds:

Packet sent with a source address of 10.1.1.1

…….

Success rate is 0 percent (0/5)

Why are the pings failing?

A. The network statement is missing on R5.

B. The loopback interface is shut down on R5.

C. The network statement is missing on R1.

D. The IP address that is configured on the Lo1 interface on R5 is incorrect.

Answer: C

Explanation:

R5 does not have a route to the 10.1.1.1 network, which is the loopback0 IP address of R1.When

looking at the EIGRP configuration on R1, we see that the 10.1.1.1 network statement is missing

on R1.

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Topic 8, WAN Technologies

QUESTION NO: 289

The output of the show frame-relay pvc command shows "PVC STATUS = INACTIVE". What does

this mean?

A. The PVC is configured correctly and is operating normally, but no data packets have been

detected for more than five minutes.

B. The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is no longer actively seeking the

address of the remote router.

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C. The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is waiting for interesting traffic to

trigger a call to the remote router.

D. The PVC is configured correctly on the local switch, but there is a problem on the remote end of

the PVC.

E. The PVC is not configured on the local switch.

Answer: D

Explanation:

The PVC STATUS displays the status of the PVC. The DCE device creates and sends the report

to the DTE devices. There are 4 statuses:

+ ACTIVE: the PVC is operational and can transmit data

+ INACTIVE: the connection from the local router to the switch is working, but the connection to

the remote router is not available

+ DELETED: the PVC is not present and no LMI information is being received from the Frame

Relay switch

+ STATIC: the Local Management Interface (LMI) mechanism on the interface is disabled (by

using the “no keepalive” command). This status is rarely seen so it is ignored in some books.

QUESTION NO: 290 DRAG DROP

Drag the Frame Relay acronym on the left to match its definition on the right. (Not all acronyms

are used.)

Answer:

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Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 291

Refer to the exhibit.

In the Frame Relay network, which IP addresses would be assigned to the interfaces with point-to-

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point PVCs?

A. DLCI 16: 192.168.10.1 /24

DLCI 17: 192.168.10.1 /24

DLCI 99: 192.168.10.2 /24

DLCI 28: 192.168.10.3 /24

B. DLCI 16: 192.168.10.1 /24

DLCI 17: 192.168.11.1 /24

DLCI 99: 192.168.12.1 /24

DLCI 28: 192.168.13.1 /24

C. DLCI 16: 192.168.10.1 /24

DLCI 17: 192.168.11.1 /24

DLCI 99: 192.168.10.2 /24

DLCI 28: 192.168.11.2 /24

D. DLCI 16: 192.168.10.1 /24

DLCI 17: 192.168.10.2 /24

DLCI 99: 192.168.10.3 /24

DLCI 28: 192.168.10.4 /24

Answer: C

Explanation:

With point to point PVC’s, each connection needs to be in a separate subnet. The R2-R1

connection (DLCI 16 to 99) would have eachrouter within the same subnet.Similarly, the R3-R1

connection would also be in the same subnet, but it must be in a differentone than the R2-R1

connection.

QUESTION NO: 292

Which command is used to enable CHAP authentication, with PAP as the fallback method, on a

serial interface?

A. Router(config-if)# ppp authentication chap fallback ppp

B. Router(config-if)# ppp authentication chap pap

C. Router(config-if)# authentication ppp chap fallback ppp

D. Router(config-if)# authentication ppp chap pap

Answer: B

Explanation:

This command tells the router firsttouse CHAP and then go to PAP if CHAP isn't available.

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QUESTION NO: 293

Which protocol is an open standard protocol framework that is commonly used in VPNs, to provide

secure end-to-end communications?

A. RSA

B. L2TP

C. IPsec

D. PPTP

Answer: C

Explanation:

IPSec is a framework of open standards that provides data confidentiality, data integrity, and data

authentication between participating peers at the IP layer. IPSec can be used to protect one or

more data flows between IPSec peers.

QUESTION NO: 294

At which layer of the OSI model does PPP perform?

A. Layer 2

B. Layer 3

C. Layer 4

D. Layer 5

Answer: A

Explanation:

The Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) provides a standard method for transporting multi-protocol

datagrams over point-to-point links. PPP was originally emerged as an encapsulation protocol for

transporting IP traffic between two peers. It is a data link layer protocol (layer 2 in the OSI model)

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QUESTION NO: 295

The command frame-relay map ip 10.121.16.8 102 broadcast was entered on the router. Which of

the following statements is true concerning this command?

A. This command should be executed from the global configuration mode.

B. The IP address 10.121.16.8 is the local router port used to forward data.

C. 102 is the remote DLCI that will receive the information.

D. This command is required for all Frame Relay configurations.

E. The broadcast option allows packets, such as RIP updates, to be forwarded across the PVC.

Answer: E

Explanation:

Broadcast is added to the configurations of the frame relay, so the PVC supports broadcast,

allowing the routing protocol updates that use the broadcast update mechanism to be forwarded

across itself.

QUESTION NO: 296

Which two options are valid WAN connectivity methods? (Choose two.)

A. PPP

B. WAP

C. DSL

D. L2TPv3

E. Ethernet

Answer: A,C

Explanation:

The Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) provides a standard method for transporting multi-protocol

datagrams over point-to-point links. PPP was originally emerged as an encapsulation protocol for

transporting IP traffic between two peers. It is a data link layer protocol used for WAN connections.

DSL is also considered a WAN connection, as it can be used to connect networks, typically when

used with VPN technology.

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QUESTION NO: 297

Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuits and

has built-in security mechanisms?

A. HDLC

B. PPP

C. X.25

D. Frame Relay

Answer: B

Explanation:

PPP: Provides router-to-router and host-to-network connections over synchronous and

asynchronous circuits. PPP was designed to work with several network layer protocols, including

IP. PPP also has built-in security mechanisms, such as Password Authentication Protocol (PAP)

and Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP).

QUESTION NO: 298

Which encapsulation type is a Frame Relay encapsulation type that is supported by Cisco routers?

A. IETF

B. ANSI Annex D

C. Q9333-A Annex A

D. HDLC

Answer: A

Explanation:

Cisco supports two Frame Relay encapsulation types: theCisco encapsulationand theIETF

Frame Relay encapsulation, which is in conformance with RFC 1490 and RFC 2427. The former

is often used to connect two Cisco routers while the latter is used to connect a Cisco router to a

non-Cisco router. You can test with your Cisco router when typing the command Router(config-if)#

encapsulation frame-relay ?on a WAN link. Below is the output of this command (notice Cisco is

the default encapsulation so it is not listed here, just press Enter to use it).

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Note: Three LMI options are supported by Cisco routers are ansi, Cisco, and Q933a. They

represent the ANSI Annex D, Cisco, and ITU Q933-A (Annex A) LMI types, respectively.

HDLC is a WAN protocol same as Frame-Relay and PPP so it is not a Frame Relay encapsulation

type.

QUESTION NO: 299

RouterA is unable to reach RouterB. Both routers are running IOS version 12.0.

After reviewing the command output and graphic, what is the most likely cause of the problem?

A. incorrect bandwidth configuration

B. incorrect LMI configuration

C. incorrect map statement

D. incorrect IP address

Answer: C

Explanation:

First we have to say this is an unclear question and it is wrong. The “frame-relay map ip”

statement is correct thus none of the four answers above is correct. But we guess there is a typo

in the output. Maybe the “ip address 172.16.100.2 255.255.0.0 command should be “ip address

172.16.100.1 255.255.0.0. That makes answer C correct.

QUESTION NO: 300

Refer to the exhibit.

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What is the meaning of the term dynamic as displayed in the output of the show frame-relay map

command shown?

A. The Serial0/0 interface is passing traffic.

B. The DLCI 100 was dynamically allocated by the router.

C. The Serial0/0 interface acquired the IP address of 172.16.3.1 from a DHCP server.

D. The DLCI 100 will be dynamically changed as required to adapt to changes in the Frame Relay

cloud.

E. The mapping between DLCI 100 and the end station IP address 172.16.3.1 was learned

through Inverse ARP.

Answer: E

Explanation:

Inverse Address Resolution Protocol (Inverse ARP) was developed to provide a mechanism for

dynamic DLCI to Layer 3 address maps. Inverse ARP works much the same way Address

Resolution Protocol (ARP) works on a LAN. However, with ARP, the device knows the Layer 3 IP

address and needs to know the remote data link MAC address. With Inverse ARP, the router

knows the Layer 2 address which is the DLCI, but needs to know the remote Layer 3 IP address.

When using dynamic address mapping, Inverse ARP requests a next-hop protocol address for

each active PVC. Once the requesting router receives an Inverse ARP response, it updates its

DLCI-to-Layer 3 address mapping table. Dynamic address mapping is enabled by default for all

protocols enabled on a physical interface. If the Frame Relay environment supports LMI

autosensing and Inverse ARP, dynamic address mapping takes place automatically. Therefore, no

static address mapping is required.

QUESTION NO: 301

A network administrator needs to configure a serial link between the main office and a remote

location. The router at the remote office is a non-Cisco router. How should the network

administrator configure the serial interface of the main office router to make the connection?

A. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0

Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252

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Main(config-if)# no shut

B. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0

Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252

Main(config-if)# encapsulation ppp

Main(config-if)# no shut

C. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0

Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252

Main(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay

Main(config-if)# authentication chap

Main(config-if)# no shut

D. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0

Main(config-if)#ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252

Main(config-if)#encapsulation ietf

Main(config-if)# no shut

Answer: B

Explanation:

With serial point to point links there are two options for the encapsulation.The default, HDLC, is

Cisco proprietary and worksonly with other Cisco routers.The other option is PPP which is

standards based and supported by all vendors.

QUESTION NO: 302

What are three reasons that an organization with multiple branch offices and roaming users might

implement a Cisco VPN solution instead of point-to-point WAN links? (Choose three.)

A. reduced cost

B. better throughput

C. broadband incompatibility

D. increased security

E. scalability

F. reduced latency

Answer: A,D,E

Explanation:

IPsec offer a number of advantages over point to point WAN links, particularly when multiple

locations are involved.These include reduced cost, increased security since all traffic is encrypted,

and increased scalability as s single WAN link can be used to connect to all locations in a VPN,

where as a point to point link would need to be provisioned to each location.

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QUESTION NO: 303

Which two statistics appear in show frame-relay map output? (Choose two.)

A. the number of BECN packets that are received by the router

B. the value of the local DLCI

C. the number of FECN packets that are received by the router

D. the status of the PVC that is configured on the router

E. the IP address of the local router

Answer: B,D

Explanation:

Sample “show frame-relay map” output:

R1#sh frame map

Serial0/0 (up): ip 10.4.4.1dlci 401(0x191,0x6410), dynamic,

broadcast,,status defined, active

Serial0/0 (up): ip 10.4.4.3dlci 403(0x193,0x6430), dynamic,

broadcast,,status defined, active

Serial0/0 (up): ip 10.4.4.4dlci 401(0x191,0x6410), static,

CISCO,status defined, active

QUESTION NO: 304

Users have been complaining that their Frame Relay connection to the corporate site is very slow.

The network administrator suspects that the link is overloaded.

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Based on the partial output of the Router# show frame relay pvc command shown in the graphic,

which output value indicates to the local router that traffic sent to the corporate site is experiencing

congestion?

A. DLCI = 100

B. last time PVC status changed 00:25:40

C. in BECN packets 192

D. in FECN packets 147

E. in DE packets 0

Answer: C

Explanation:

If device A is sending data to device B across a Frame Relay infrastructure and one of the

intermediate Frame Relay switches encounters congestion, congestion being full buffers, oversubscribed

port, overloaded resources, etc, it will set the BECN bit on packets being returned to

the sending device and the FECN bit on the packets being sent to the receiving device.

QUESTION NO: 305

Which command allows you to verify the encapsulation type (CISCO or IETF) for a Frame Relay

link?

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A. show frame-relay lmi

B. show frame-relay map

C. show frame-relay pvc

D. show interfaces serial

Answer: B

Explanation:

When connecting Cisco devices with non-Cisco devices, you must use IETF4 encapsulation on

both devices. Check the encapsulation type on the Cisco device with theshow frame-relay map

exec command.

QUESTION NO: 306

It has become necessary to configure an existing serial interface to accept a second Frame Relay

virtual circuit. Which of the following procedures are required to accomplish this task? (Choose

three.)

A. Remove the IP address from the physical interface.

B. Encapsulate the physical interface with multipoint PPP.

C. Create the virtual interfaces with the interface command.

D. Configure each subinterface with its own IP address.

E. Disable split horizon to prevent routing loops between the subinterface networks.

F. Configure static Frame Relay map entries for each subinterface network.

Answer: A,C,D

Explanation:

For multiple PVC’s on a single interface, you must use subinterfaces, with each subinterface

configured for each PVC.Each subinterface will then have its own IP address, and no IP address

will be assigned to the main interface.

QUESTION NO: 307

What occurs on a Frame Relay network when the CIR is exceeded?

A. All TCP traffic is marked discard eligible.

B. All UDP traffic is marked discard eligible and a BECN is sent.

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C. All TCP traffic is marked discard eligible and a BECN is sent.

D. All traffic exceeding the CIR is marked discard eligible.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Committed information rate (CIR): The minimum guaranteed data transfer rate agreed to by the

Frame Relay switch. Frames that are sent in excess of the CIR are marked as discard eligible

(DE) which means they can be dropped if the congestion occurs within the Frame Relay network.

Note: In the Frame Relay frame format, there is a bit called Discard eligible (DE) bit that is used to

identify frames that are first to be dropped when the CIR is exceeded.

QUESTION NO: 308

Which two statements about using the CHAP authentication mechanism in a PPP link are true?

(Choose two.)

A. CHAP uses a two-way handshake.

B. CHAP uses a three-way handshake.

C. CHAP authentication periodically occurs after link establishment.

D. CHAP authentication passwords are sent in plaintext.

E. CHAP authentication is performed only upon link establishment.

F. CHAP has no protection from playback attacks.

Answer: B,C

Explanation:

CHAP is an authentication scheme used by Point to Point Protocol (PPP) servers to validate the

identity of remote clients. CHAP periodically verifies the identity of the client by using a three-way

handshake. This happens at the time of establishing the initial link (LCP), and may happen again

at any time afterwards. The verification is based on a shared secret (such as the client user's

password).

QUESTION NO: 309

Refer to the exhibit.

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Which statement describes DLCI 17?

A. DLCI 17 describes the ISDN circuit between R2 and R3.

B. DLCI 17 describes a PVC on R2. It cannot be used on R3 or R1.

C. DLCI 17 is the Layer 2 address used by R2 to describe a PVC to R3.

D. DLCI 17 describes the dial-up circuit from R2 and R3 to the service provider.

Answer: C

Explanation:

DLCI-Data Link Connection Identifier Bits: The DLCI serves to identify the virtual connection so

that the receiving end knows which information connection a frame belongs to. Note that this DLCI

has only local significance. Frame Relay is strictly a Layer 2 protocol suite.

QUESTION NO: 310

What is the result of issuing the frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.2 202 broadcast command?

A. defines the destination IP address that is used in all broadcast packets on DCLI 202

B. defines the source IP address that is used in all broadcast packets on DCLI 202

C. defines the DLCI on which packets from the 192.168.1.2 IP address are received

D. defines the DLCI that is used for all packets that are sent to the 192.168.1.2 IP address

Answer: D

Explanation:

This command identifies the DLCI that should be used for all packets destined to the 192.168.1.2

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address.In this case, DLCI 202 should be used.

QUESTION NO: 311

Which PPP subprotocol negotiates authentication options?

A. NCP

B. ISDN

C. SLIP

D. LCP

E. DLCI

Answer: D

Explanation:

The PPP Link Control Protocol (LCP) is documented in RFC 1661. LPC negotiates link and PPP

parameters to dynamically configure the data link layer of a PPP connection. Common LCP

options include the PPP MRU, the authentication protocol, compression of PPP header fields,

callback, and multilink options.

QUESTION NO: 312

What are two characteristics of Frame Relay point-to-point subinterfaces? (Choose two.)

A. They create split-horizon issues.

B. They require a unique subnet within a routing domain.

C. They emulate leased lines.

D. They are ideal for full-mesh topologies.

E. They require the use of NBMA options when using OSPF.

Answer: B,C

Explanation:

Subinterfaces are used for point to point frame relay connections, emulating virtual point to point

leased lines.Each subinterface requires a unique IP address/subnet.Remember, you cannot

assign multiple interfaces in a router that belong to the same IP subnet.

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QUESTION NO: 313

What command is used to verify the DLCI destination address in a Frame Relay static

configuration?

A. show frame-relay pvc

B. show frame-relay lmi

C. show frame-relay map

D. show frame relay end-to-end

Answer: C

Explanation:

Sample “show frame-relay map” output:

R1#sh frame map

Serial0/0 (up): ip 10.4.4.1dlci 401(0x191,0x6410), dynamic,

broadcast,, status defined, active

Serial0/0 (up): ip 10.4.4.3dlci 403(0x193,0x6430), dynamic,

broadcast,, status defined, active

Serial0/0 (up): ip 10.4.4.4dlci 401(0x191,0x6410), static,

CISCO, status defined, active

QUESTION NO: 314

What is the purpose of Inverse ARP?

A. to map a known IP address to a MAC address

B. to map a known DLCI to a MAC address

C. to map a known MAC address to an IP address

D. to map a known DLCI to an IP address

E. to map a known IP address to a SPID

F. to map a known SPID to a MAC address

Answer: D

Explanation:

Dynamic address mapping relies on the Frame Relay Inverse Address Resolution Protocol

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(Inverse ARP), defined by RFC 1293, to resolve a next hop network protocol (IP) address to a

local DLCI value. The Frame Relay router sends out Inverse ARP requests on its Frame Relay

PVC to discover the protocol address of the remote device connected to the Frame Relay network.

The responses to the Inverse ARP requests are used to populate an address-to-DLCI mapping

table on the Frame Relay router or access server. The router builds and maintains this address-to-

DLCI mapping table, which contains all resolved Inverse ARP requests, including both dynamic

and static mapping entries.

QUESTION NO: 315 CORRECT TEXT

A corporation wants to add security to its network. The requirements are:

Host B should be able to use a web browser (HTTP) to access the Finance Web Server.

Other types of access from host B to theFinance Web Server should be blocked.

All access from hosts in the Core or local LAN to the Finance Web Server should be blocked.

All hosts in the Core and on local LAN should be able to access the Public Web Server.

You have been tasked to create and apply a numbered access list to a single outbound

interface. This access list can contain no more than three statements that meet these

requirements.

Access to the router CLI can be gained by clicking on the appropriate host.

All passwords have been temporarily set to “cisco”.

The Core connection uses an IP address of 198.18.132.65.

The computers in the Hosts LAN have been assigned addresses of 192.168.201.1 –

192.168.201.254.

host A 192.168.201.1

host B 192.168.201.2

host C 192.168.201.3

host D 192.168.201.4

The Finance Web Server has been assigned an address of 172.22.237.17.

The Public Web Server in the Server LAN has been assigned an addressof 172.22.237.18.

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Answer: Please check the below explanation for all details.

Explanation:

We should create an access-list andapply it to the interface thatis connected to the Server LAN

because it canfilter out traffic from both S2 and Core networks.To see which interface this is, use

the “show ip interface brief” command:

From this, we know that the servers are located on the fa0/1 interface, so we will place our

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numbered access list here in the outbound direction.

Corp1#configure terminal

Our access-list needs to allow host B – 192.168125.2to theFinance Web Server 172.22.109.17 via

HTTP(port 80), so our first line is this:

Corp1(config)#access-list 100 permit tcp host 192.168.125.2 host 172.22.109.17eq 80

Then, our next two instructions are these:

This can be accomplished with one command (which we need to do as our ACL needs to be no

more than 3 lines long), blocking all other access to the finance web server:

Corp1(config)#access-list 100 deny ip any host 172.22.109.17

Our last instruction is to allow allhosts in the Core and onthe local LANaccesstothe PublicWeb

Server (172.22.109.18)

Corp1(config)#access-list 100 permit ip host 172.22.109.18any

Finally, apply this access-list to Fa0/1 interface (outbound direction)

Corp1(config)#interface fa0/1

Corp1(config-if)#ip access-group 100 out

Notice: We have to apply the access-list to Fa0/1 interface (not Fa0/0 interface) so that the

access-list can filter traffic coming from both theLAN and the Core networks.

To verify, just click on host Bto open its web browser. In the address box type

http://172.22.109.17 to check if you are allowed to access Finance Web Server or not. If your

configuration is correct then you can access it.

Click on other hosts (A, Cand D) and check to make sure you can’t access Finance Web Server

from these hosts. Then, repeat to make sure they can reach the public server at 172.22.109.18.

Finally, save the configuration

Corp1(config-if)#end

Corp1#copy running-config startup-config

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Topic 9, Mixed Questions

QUESTION NO: 316

If a router has four interfaces and each interface is connected to four switches, how many

broadcast domains are present on the router?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 4

D. 8

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 317

Which command can you use to set the hostname on a switch?

A. switch-mdf-c1(config)#hostname switch-mdf1

B. switch-mdf-c1>hostname switch-mdf1

C. switch-mdf-c1#hostname switch-mdf1

D. switch-mdf-c1(config-if)#hostname switch-mdf1

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 318

If the primary root bridge experiences a power loss, which switch takes over?

A. switch 0004.9A1A.C182

B. switch 00E0.F90B.6BE3

C. switch 00E0.F726.3DC6

D. switch 0040.0BC0.90C5

Answer: A

Explanation:

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QUESTION NO: 319

Which IPv6 header field is equivalent to the TTL?

A. Hop Limit

B. Flow Label

C. TTD

D. Hop Count

E. Scan Timer

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 320

Which two statements about the tunnel mode ipv6ip command are true? (Choose two.)

A. It enables the transmission of IPv6 packets within the configured tunnel.

B. It specifies IPv4 as the encapsulation protocol.

C. It specifies IPv6 as the encapsulation protocol.

D. It specifies IPv6 as the transport protocol.

E. It specifies that the tunnel is a Teredo tunnel.

Answer: A,B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 321

What is the correct routing match to reach 172.16.1.5/32?

A. 172.16.1.0/26

B. 172.16.1.0/25

C. 172.16.1.0/24

D. the default route

Answer: A

Explanation:

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QUESTION NO: 322

Which step in the router boot process searches for an IOS image to load into the router?

A. bootstrap

B. POST

C. mini-IOS

D. ROMMON mode

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 323

Which command can you enter to route all traffic that is destined for 192.168.0.0/20 to a specific

interface?

A. router(config)#ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.240.0 GigabitEthernet0/1

B. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 GigabitEthernet0/1

C. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 GigabitEthernet0/1

D. router(config)#ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0 GigabitEthernet0/1

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 324

Which technology allows a large number of private IP addresses to be represented by a smaller

number of public IP addresses?

A. NAT

B. NTP

C. RFC 1631

D. RFC 1918

Answer: A

Explanation:

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QUESTION NO: 325

What is the effect of the overload keyword in a static NAT translation configuration?

A. It enables port address translation.

B. It enables the use of a secondary pool of IP addresses when the first pool is depleted.

C. It enables the inside interface to receive traffic.

D. It enables the outside interface to forward traffic.

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 326

Which protocol advertises a virtual IP address to facilitate transparent failover of a Cisco routing

device?

A. FHRP

B. DHCP

C. RSMLT

D. ESRP

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 327

What are three broadband wireless technologies? (Choose three.)

A. WiMax

B. satellite Internet

C. municipal Wi-Fi

D. site-to-site VPN

E. DSLAM

F. CMTS

Answer: A,B,C

Explanation:

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QUESTION NO: 328

Which condition indicates that service password-encryption is enabled?

A. The local username password is encrypted in the configuration.

B. The enable secret is encrypted in the configuration.

C. The local username password is in clear text in the configuration.

D. The enable secret is in clear text in the configuration.

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 329

Which two spanning-tree port states does RSTP combine to allow faster convergence? (Choose

two.)

A. blocking

B. listening

C. learning

D. forwarding

E. discarding

Answer: A,B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 330

Which technology can enable multiple VLANs to communicate with one another?

A. inter-VLAN routing using a Layer 3 switch

B. inter-VLAN routing using a Layer 2 switch

C. intra-VLAN routing using router on a stick

D. intra-VLAN routing using a Layer 3 switch

Answer: A

Explanation:

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QUESTION NO: 331

In which three ways is an IPv6 header simpler than an IPv4 header? (Choose three.)

A. Unlike IPv4 headers, IPv6 headers have a fixed length.

B. IPv6 uses an extension header instead of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.

C. IPv6 headers eliminate the IPv4 Checksum field.

D. IPv6 headers use the Fragment Offset field in place of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.

E. IPv6 headers use a smaller Option field size than IPv4 headers.

F. IPv6 headers use a 4-bit TTL field, and IPv4 headers use an 8-bit TTL field.

Answer: A,B,C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 332

Which feature builds a FIB and an adjacency table to expedite packet forwarding?

A. Cisco Express Forwarding

B. process switching

C. fast switching

D. cut-through

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 333

What is the purpose of the POST operation on a router?

A. determine whether additional hardware has been added

B. locate an IOS image for booting

C. enable a TFTP server

D. set the configuration register

Answer: A

Explanation:

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QUESTION NO: 334

Which command can you enter to set the default route for all traffic to an interface?

A. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 GigabitEthernet0/1

B. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 GigabitEthernet0/1

C. router(config-router)#default-information originate

D. router(config-router)#default-information originate always

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 335

Which two types of NAT addresses are used in a Cisco NAT device? (Choose two.)

A. inside local

B. inside global

C. inside private

D. outside private

E. external global

F. external local

Answer: A,B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 336

What is the danger of the permit any entry in a NAT access list?

A. It can lead to overloaded resources on the router.

B. It can cause too many addresses to be assigned to the same interface.

C. It can disable the overload command.

D. It prevents the correct translation of IP addresses on the inside network.

Answer: A

Explanation:

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QUESTION NO: 337

Which protocol is the Cisco proprietary implementation of FHRP?

A. HSRP

B. VRRP

C. GLBP

D. CARP

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 338

Which two statements about late collisions are true? (Choose two.)

A. They may indicate a duplex mismatch.

B. By definition, they occur after the 512th bit of the frame has been transmitted.

C. They indicate received frames that did not pass the FCS match.

D. They are frames that exceed 1518 bytes.

E. They occur when CRC errors and interference occur on the cable.

Answer: A,B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 339

Which three characteristics are representative of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose three.)

A. provides common view of entire topology

B. exchanges routing tables with neighbors

C. calculates shortest path

D. utilizes event-triggered updates

E. utilizes frequent periodic updates

Answer: A,C,D

Explanation:

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QUESTION NO: 340

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the effect of the given configuration?

A. It configures an inactive switch virtual interface.

B. It configures an active management interface.

C. It configures the native VLAN.

D. It configures the default VLAN.

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 341

Which command can you enter to view the ports that are assigned to VLAN 20?

A. Switch#show vlan id 20

B. Switch#show ip interface brief

C. Switch#show interface vlan 20

D. Switch#show ip interface vlan 20

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 342

If primary and secondary root switches with priority 16384 both experience catastrophic losses,

which tertiary switch can take over?

A. a switch with priority 20480

B. a switch with priority 8192

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C. a switch with priority 4096

D. a switch with priority 12288

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 343

Which two statements about IPv6 and routing protocols are true? (Choose two.)

A. Link-local addresses are used to form routing adjacencies.

B. OSPFv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.

C. EIGRP, OSPF, and BGP are the only routing protocols that support IPv6.

D. Loopback addresses are used to form routing adjacencies.

E. EIGRPv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.

Answer: A,B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 344

Which two features can dynamically assign IPv6 addresses? (Choose two.)

A. IPv6 stateless autoconfiguration

B. DHCP

C. NHRP

D. IPv6 stateful autoconfiguration

E. ISATAP tunneling

Answer: A,B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 345

Which command can you enter to configure a local username with an encrypted password and

EXEC mode user privileges?

A. Router(config)#username jdone privilege 1 password 7 08314D5D1A48

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B. Router(config)#username jdone privilege 1 password 7 PASSWORD1

C. Router(config)#username jdone privilege 15 password 0 08314D5D1A48

D. Router(config)#username jdone privilege 15 password 0 PASSWORD1

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 346

Which three commands can you use to set a router boot image? (Choose three.)

A. Router(config)# boot system flash c4500-p-mz.121-20.bin

B. Router(config)# boot system tftp c7300-js-mz.122-33.SB8a.bin

C. Router(config)#boot system rom c7301-advipservicesk9-mz.124-24.T4.bin

D. Router> boot flash:c180x-adventerprisek9-mz-124-6T.bin

E. Router(config)#boot flash:c180x-adventerprisek9-mz-124-6T.bin

F. Router(config)#boot bootldr bootflash:c4500-jk9s-mz.122-23f.bin

Answer: A,B,C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 347

Which three statements about static routing are true? (Choose three.)

A. It uses consistent route determination.

B. It is best used for small-scale deployments.

C. Routing is disrupted when links fail.

D. It requires more resources than other routing methods.

E. It is best used for large-scale deployments.

F. Routers can use update messages to reroute when links fail.

Answer: A,B,C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 348

Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT device?

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A. outside global

B. outside local

C. inside global

D. inside local

E. outside public

F. inside public

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 349

Which command can you enter to display the hits counter for NAT traffic?

A. show ip nat statistics

B. debug ip nat

C. show ip debug nat

D. clear ip nat statistics

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 350

Which standards-based First Hop Redundancy Protocol is a Cisco supported alternative to Hot

Standby Router Protocol?

A. VRRP

B. GLBP

C. TFTP

D. DHCP

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 351

What are two reasons that duplex mismatches can be difficult to diagnose? (Choose two.)

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A. The interface displays a connected (up/up) state even when the duplex settings are

mismatched.

B. The symptoms of a duplex mismatch may be intermittent.

C. Autonegotiation is disabled.

D. Full-duplex interfaces use CSMA/CD logic, so mismatches may be disguised by collisions.

E. 1-Gbps interfaces are full-duplex by default.

Answer: A,B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 352

Which command can you execute to set the user inactivity timer to 10 seconds?

A. SW1(config-line)#exec-timeout 0 10

B. SW1(config-line)#exec-timeout 10

C. SW1(config-line)#absolute-timeout 0 10

D. SW1(config-line)#absolute-timeout 10

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 353

Which command sequence can you enter to create VLAN 20 and assign it to an interface on a

switch?

A. Switch(config)#vlan 20

Switch(config)#Interface gig x/y

Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20

B. Switch(config)#Interface gig x/y

Switch(config-if)#vlan 20

Switch(config-vlan)#switchport access vlan 20

C. Switch(config)#vlan 20

Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20

Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk native vlan 20

D. Switch(config)#vlan 20

Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20

Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20

E. Switch(config)#vlan 20

Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20

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Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 20

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 354

Which spanning-tree protocol rides on top of another spanning-tree protocol?

A. MSTP

B. RSTP

C. PVST+

D. Mono Spanning Tree

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 355

Which two statements about IPv6 router advertisement messages are true? (Choose two.)

A. They use ICMPv6 type 134.

B. The advertised prefix length must be 64 bits.

C. The advertised prefix length must be 48 bits.

D. They are sourced from the configured IPv6 interface address.

E. Their destination is always the link-local address of the neighboring node.

Answer: A,B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 356

Which three statements about IPv6 prefixes are true? (Choose three.)

A. FF00:/8 is used for IPv6 multicast.

B. FE80::/10 is used for link-local unicast.

C. FC00::/7 is used in private networks.

D. 2001::1/127 is used for loopback addresses.

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E. FE80::/8 is used for link-local unicast.

F. FEC0::/10 is used for IPv6 broadcast.

Answer: A,B,C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 357

After you configure the Loopback0 interface, which command can you enter to verify the status of

the interface and determine whether fast switching is enabled?

A. Router#show ip interface loopback 0

B. Router#show run

C. Router#show interface loopback 0

D. Router#show ip interface brief

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 358

Which three statements about link-state routing are true? (Choose three.)

A. Routes are updated when a change in topology occurs.

B. Updates are sent to a multicast address by default.

C. OSPF is a link-state protocol.

D. Updates are sent to a broadcast address.

E. RIP is a link-state protocol.

F. It uses split horizon.

Answer: A,B,C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 359

Which NAT function can map multiple inside addresses to a single outside address?

A. PAT

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B. SFTP

C. RARP

D. ARP

E. TFTP

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 360

What is the first step in the NAT configuration process?

A. Define inside and outside interfaces.

B. Define public and private IP addresses.

C. Define IP address pools.

D. Define global and local interfaces.

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 361

What are two requirements for an HSRP group? (Choose two.)

A. exactly one active router

B. one or more standby routers

C. one or more backup virtual routers

D. exactly one standby active router

E. exactly one backup virtual router

Answer: A,B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 362

Which two commands can you enter to verify that a configured NetFlow data export is

operational? (Choose two.)

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A. show ip flow export

B. show ip cache flow

C. ip flow ingress

D. ip flow egress

E. interface ethernet 0/0

F. ip flow-export destination

Answer: A,B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 363

What are three characteristics of satellite Internet connections? (Choose three.)

A. Their upload speed is about 10 percent of their download speed.

B. They are frequently used by rural users without access to other high-speed connections.

C. They are usually at least 10 times faster than analog modem connections.

D. They are usually faster than cable and DSL connections.

E. They require a WiMax tower within 30 miles of the user location.

F. They use radio waves to communicate with cellular phone towers.

Answer: A,B,C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 364 CORRECT TEXT

A corporation wants to add security to its network. The requirements are:

Host C should be able to use a web browser (HTTP) to access the Finance Web Server.

Other types of access from host C to the Finance Web Server should be blocked.

All access from hosts in the Core or local LAN to the Finance Web Server should be blocked.

All hosts in the Core and on local LAN should be able to access the Public Web Server.

You have been tasked to create and apply a numbered access list to a single outbound

interface. This access list can contain no more than three statements that meet these

requirements.

Access to the router CLI can be gained by clicking on the appropriate host.

All passwords have been temporarily set to “cisco”.

The Core connection uses an IP address of 198.18.209.65.

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The computers in the Hosts LAN have been assigned addresses of 192.168.78.1 –

192.168.78.254.

host A 192.168.78.1

host B 192.168.78.2

host C 192.168.78.3

host D 192.168.78.4

The Finance Web Server has been assigned an address of 172.22.146.17.

The Public Web Server in the Server LAN has been assigned an address of 172.22.146.18.

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Answer: Please see below explanation part for details answer steps:

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Explanation:

We should create an access-list andapply it to the interface thatis connected to the Server LAN

because it canfilter out traffic from both S2 and Core networks.To see which interface this is, use

the “show ip int brief” command:

From this, we know that the servers are located on the fa0/1 interface, so we will place our

numbered access list here in the outbound direction.

Corp1#configure terminal

Our access-list needs to allow host C – 192.168125.3to theFinance Web Server 172.22.109.17 via

HTTP(port 80), so our first line is this:

Corp1(config)#access-list 100 permit tcp host 192.168.125.3 host 172.22.109.17eq 80

Then, our next two instructions are these:

This can be accomplished with one command (which we need to do as our ACL needs to be no

more than 3 lines long), blocking all other access to the finance web server:

Corp1(config)#access-list 100 deny ip any host 172.22.109.17

Our last instruction is to allow allhosts in the Core and onthe local LANaccesstothe PublicWeb

Server (172.22.109.18)

Corp1(config)#access-list 100 permit ip host 172.22.109.18any

Finally, apply this access-list to Fa0/1 interface (outbound direction)

Corp1(config)#interface fa0/1

Corp1(config-if)#ip access-group 100 out

Notice: We have to apply the access-list to Fa0/1 interface (not Fa0/0 interface) so that the

access-list can filter traffic coming from both theLAN and the Core networks.

To verify, just click on host Cto open its web browser. In the address box type

http://172.22.109.17 to check if you are allowed to access Finance Web Server or not. If your

configuration is correct then you can access it.

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Click on other hosts (A, B and D) and check to make sure you can’t access Finance Web Server

from these hosts. Then, repeat to make sure they can reach the public server at 172.22.109.18.

Finally, save the configuration

Corp1(config-if)#end

Corp1#copy running-config startup-config

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New 200-125 exam questions from Pass Leader 200-125 dumps FYI:

NEW QUESTION 1167 Which task do you need to perform first when you configure IP SLA to troubleshoot a network Connectivity issue?

A. Enable the ICMP echo operation. B. Specify the test frequency. C. Verify the ICMP echo operation. D. Schedule the ICMP operation.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 1168 Which plane handles switching traffic through a Cisco router?

A. control B. management C. data D. performance

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 1169 Which two statements correctly describe the ping utility? (Choose two.)

A. It uses ICMP. B. It can identify source of an ICMP “time exceeded” message. C. It can identify the path that a packet takes to a remote device. D. It can verify connectivity to a remote device without identifying the path. E. It use UDP.

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 1170 Which access layer threat mitigation technique security by acting as a filter between trusted and untrusted traffic sources?

A. DHCP snooping. B. 802.1X. C. Dynamic packet inspection. D. A nondefault native VLAN.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 1171 Which value is included in the initial TCP SYN message?

A. a sequence number B. a TTL number C. an acknowledgment number D. a session ID

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 1172 Which command should you enter to configure a single port to prevent alternate ports from becoming designated ports?

A. spanning-tree etherchannel misconfig B. spanning-tree guard root C. spanning-tree loopguard default D. spanning-tree guard loop

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 1173 Which circumstance is a common cause of late collisions?

A. native VLAN mismatch B. overloaded hardware queues C. duplex mismatch D. software misconfiguration

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 1174 Which two facts must you table into account when you deploy PPPoE? (Choose two.)

A. You must manually configure IP addresses on the PPPoE interface. B. DDR is not supported. C. DDR idle timers must be configured to support VPDN logging. D. PPPoE supports a maximum of 10 clients per customer premises equipment. E. An individual PVC can support one PPPoE client.

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 1175 Which two circumstances can prevent two routers from establishing an OSPF neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.)

A. mismatched autonomous system numbers B. an ACL blocking traffic from multicast address 224.0.0.10 C. mismatched process IDs D. mismatched hello timers and dead timers E. use of the same router ID on both devices

Answer: DE

NEW QUESTION 1176 After an FTP session to http://ftp.cisco.com fails, you attempt to ping the server. A ping to http://ftp.cisco.com also fails, but a ping to the IP address of the server is successful. What is reason for the failed FTP session?

A. The assigned DNS server is down. B. An ACL is blocking the FTP request. C. A firewall is blocking traffic from the FTP site. D. The internet connection is down.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 1177 You have configured a router with an OSPF router ID, but its IP address still reflects the physical interface. Which action can you take to correct the problem in the least disruptive way?

A. Reload the OSPF process. B. Specify a loopback address. C. Reboot the router. D. Save the router configuration.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 1178 Which two statements about an Ethernet frame source address are true? (Choose two.)

A. The address is 4 bits long. B. The leftmost bit is always 0. C. The address is 6 bytes long. D. The leftmost bit is always 1. E. The address is 4 bytes long.

Answer: BC Explanation: Source Address (SA) – The source address consists of six bytes, and it is used to identify the sending station. As it is always an individual address the left most bit is always a zero.

NEW QUESTION 1179 Which two features are compatible with port security? (Choose two.)

A. SPAN destination port B. Voice VLAN C. DTP D. EtherChannel E. SPAN source port

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 1180 Which feature or method can you use to isolate physical layer problems on a serial link?

A. loopback tests B. autonegotiation C. UDLD D. protocol analyzer

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 1181 Which switching method checks for CRC errors?

A. store-and-forward B. cut-through C. fragment-free D. layer 3

Answer: A Explanation: – In cut-through switching, the switch copies into its memory only the destination MAC address (first six bytes of the frame) of the frame. After processing these first six bytes, the switch had enough information to make a forwarding decision and move the frame to the appropriate switchport. This switching method is faster than store-and-forward switching method. – In store-and-forward switching, the switch copies each complete Ethernet frame into the switch memory and computes a Cyclic Redundancy Check (CRC) for errors. If a CRC error is found, the Ethernet frame is dropped. If no CRC error is found then that frame is forwarded.

NEW QUESTION 1182 Which two actions must you take to correctly configure PPPoE on a client? (Choose two.)

A. Define a dialer interface. B. Create a dialer pool and bind it to the virtual template. C. Define a virtual template interface. D. Create a dialer pool and bind it to the physical interface. E. Create a BBA group and link it to the dialer interface.

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 1183 Which two benefits are provided by cloud resources to an enterprise network? (Choose two.)

A. full control of infrastructure B. complexity at higher cost C. flexibility D. on-demand scalability E. easy access with low security

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 1184 Which two pieces of information can you determine from the output of the show ntp status command? (Choose two.)

A. whether the NTP peer is statically configured B. the IP address of the peer to Which the clock is synchronized C. the configured NTP servers D. whether the clock is synchronized E. the NTP version number of the peer

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 1185 Which two technologies can combine multiple physical switches into one logical switch? (Choose two.)

A. HSRP B. GLBP C. StackWise D. VRRP E. VSS

Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 1186 What are two reasons to use multicast to deliver video traffic, instead of unicast or broadcas? (Choose two.)

A. It provides reliable TCP transport. B. It enables multiple clients to receive the video stream simultaneously. C. It enables multiple servers to send video streams simultaneously. D. It enables multiple clients to send video streams simultaneously. E. It supports distributed applications.

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 1187 Which two task should you perform to begin troubleshooting a network problem? (Choose two.)

A. Gather all the facts. B. Define the problem as a set of symptoms and causes. C. Monitor and verify the resolution. D. Analyze the result. E. Implement an action plan.

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 1188 What are two benefits that the UDP protocol provide for application traffic? (Choose two.)

A. UDP traffic has lower overhead than TCP traffic. B. UDP provides a built-in recovery mechanism to retransmit lost packets. C. The CTL field in the UDP packet header enables a three-way handshake to establish the connection. D. UDP maintains the connection state to provide more stable connections than TCP. E. The application can use checksums to verify the integrity of application data.

Answer: AE

NEW QUESTION 1189 Which two statements about the successor and feasible successor are true? (Choose two.)

A. The successor is stored in the routing table. B. The feasible successor has a lower metric than the successor. C. The successor is the primary route. D. The successor is the secondary route. E. The feasible successor is stored in both the topology table and the routing table.

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 1190 Which two statements about TACACS+ are true? (Choose two.)

A. It combines authentication and authorization to simplify configuration. B. it uses UDP port 49. C. It supports full command logging. D. It uses TCP port 49. E. It encrypts the password only.

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 1191 Which two server types are used to support DNS lookup? (Choose two.)

A. web server B. name resolver C. authoritative name sever D. ESX host E. file transfer server

Answer: BC

Exam A

QUESTION 1

Which three statements about HSRP operation are true? (Choose three.)

A. The virtual IP address and virtual MAC address are active on the HSRP Master router.

B. The HSRP default timers are a 3 second hello interval and a 10 second dead interval.

C. HSRP supports only clear-text authentication

D. The HSRP virtual IP address must be on a different subnet than the routers' interfaces on the same LAN.

E. The HSRP virtual IP address must be the same as one of the router's interface addresses on the LAN.

F. HSRP supports up to 255 groups per interface, enabling an administrative form of load balancing.

Correct Answer: ABF

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2

Which two options describe benefits of aggregated chassis technology ( choose 2)

A. it reduces management overhead

B. switches can be located anywhere regardless of there physical location

C. it requires only 1 IP add per VLAN

D. it requires only 3 IP add per VLAN

E. it supports HSRP VRRP GLBP

F. it support redundant configuration files

Correct Answer: AC

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3

How to trouble DNS issue ( choose two)

A. Ping a public website IP address.

B. Ping the DNS Server.

C. Determine whether a DHCP address has been assigned.

D. Determine whether the hardware address is correct.

E. Determine whether the name servers have been configured

Correct Answer: BC

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4

Which utility can you use to identify redundant or shadow rules ?

A. The ACL trace tool in Cisco APIC-EM.

B. The ACL analysis tool in Cisco APIC-EM.

C. The Cisco APIC-EM automation scheduler.

D. The Cisco IWAN application.

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 5

What does traffic shaping do to reduce congestion in a network?

A. buffers and queues packets

B. buffers without queuing packets

C. queqes without buffering packets

D. drops packets

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6

Which 2 statements about extended traceroute command is true? (Choose Two)

A. it can send packets from specified interface or ip add

B. it can use a specified TTL value

C. it can validate the reply data

D. it can use a specificed TOS

E. it can repeated automatically to a specified interval

Correct Answer: AB

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7

Which command can you enter to determine the addresses that have been assigned on a DHCP Server?

A. Show ip DHCP database

B. Show ip DHCP pool

C. Show ip DHCP binding

D. Show ip DHCP server statistic

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 8

Which statement about SNMPv2 is true ?

A. Its privacy algorithms use MD5 encryption by default.

B. it requires passwords to be encrypyed.

C. Its authetication and privacy algorithms are enable without default values.

D. It requires passwords at least eight characters en length.

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 9

Which symptom most commonly indicates that 2 connecting interface are configured with a duplex mismatch?

A. an int with up/down state

B. an int with down/down state

C. late collisions on the interface

D. the spanning tree process shutting down

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10

How Eigrp for ipv6 configuration done? ( choose 2)

A. uses process number

B. neighbor configured directly

C. configured driectly on interface

D. configured globally interface

E. have shutdown feature

Correct Answer: CE

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 11

Which VTP mode can not make a change to vlan?

A. Server

B. Client

C. Transparent

D. Off

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 12

Which mode are in PAgP? (choose two)

A. Auto

B. Desirable

C. Active

D. Passive

E. On

Correct Answer: AB

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 13

In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices transmit? (Choose two.)

A. when they receive a special token

B. when there is a carrier

C. when they detect no other devices are sending

D. when the server grants access

E. when the medium is idle

Correct Answer: CE

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 14

At which layer of the OSI model does PPP perform?

A. Layer 2

B. Layer 3

C. Layer 4

D. Layer 5

E. Layer 1

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 15

What are three reasons that an organization with multiple branch offices and roaming users might implement

a Cisco VPN solution instead of point-to-point WAN links? (Choose three.)

A. reduced cost

B. better throughput

C. broadband incompatibility

D. increased security

E. scalability

F. reduced latency

Correct Answer: ADE

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 16

Which IPv6 header field is equivalent to the TTL?

A. Scan Timer

B. TTD

C. Flow Label

D. Hop Limit

E. Hop Count

Correct Answer: D

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 17

which port security mode can assist with troubleshooting by keeping count of violations?

A. access

B. protect

C. restrict

D. shutdown

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 18

which 2 optns are requirements for configuring ripv2 for ipv4 (choose 2)

A. enabling RIP authentication

B. connecting RIP to a WAN Interface

C. enabling auto route sumamrization

D. allowing unicast updates for RIP

E. enabling RIP on the router

Correct Answer: DE

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 19

which statement about EIGRP on IPv6 device is true

A. It is configured on the interface

B. It is globally configured

C. If is configured using a network statement

D. It is vendor agnostic.

E. It supports a shutdown feature.

Correct Answer: AE

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 20

which command can you enter to troubleshoot the failure of address assignment ?

A. sh ip dhcp database

B. sh ip dhcp pool

C. sh ip dhcp import

D. sh ip dhcp server statistics

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 21

which three technical services support cloud computing ?

A. network-monitored power sources

B. layer 3 network routing

C. ip localization

D. redundant connections

E. VPN connectivity

F. extended SAN services

Correct Answer: AEF

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 22

which two steps must you perform to enable router-on-stick on a switch ?

A. connect the router to a trunk port

B. config the sub interface number exactly the same as the matching VLAN

C. config full duplex

D. cofigure an ip route to the vlan destn net

E. assign the access port to the vlan

Correct Answer: AE

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 23

which add prefix does OSPFv3 use when multiple IPv6 address are configured on a single interface ?

A. all prefix on the int

B. the prefix that the administrator configure for OSPFv3 use

C. the lowest prefix on the int

D. the highest prefix on the int

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 24

which IP configuration does the CIDR notation 192.168.1.1/25 refer?

A. 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.64

B. 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.1

C. 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.32

D. 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.256

E. 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.128

Correct Answer: E

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 25

CIDR notation (255.255.255.252 ) / notation

A. 30

B. 31

C. 32

D. 33

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 26

Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two)

A. RSTP cannot operate with PVST+.

B. RSTP defines new port roles.

C. RSTP defines no new port states.

D. RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1D STP.

E. RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP

Correct Answer: BE

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 27

What is known as one-to-nearest addressing in IPv6?

A. global unicast

B. anycast

C. multicast

D. unspecified address

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 28

When a device learns multiple routes to a specific network, it installs the route with:

A. Longest bit Match (highest subnet Mask)

B. lowest AD

C. lowest metric

D. equal load balancing

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=2180208&seqNum=9

QUESTION 29

Requirement to configure DHCP binding ( 2 options)

A. DHCP pool

B. ip address

C. Hardware address

D. other option

Correct Answer: BC

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 30

Which major component of the network virtualization architecture isolate users according to policy?

A. policy enforcement

B. network access control

C. network services virtualization

D. can't remember

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Network access control and segmentation of classes

of users:

Users are authenticated and either allowed or denied into a logical partition. Users are segmented into

employees, contractors and consultants, and guests, with respective access to IT assets. This component

identifies users who are authorized toaccess the network and then places them into the appropriate logical

partition.

QUESTION 31

Which two statements about firewalls are true ?

A. They can be used with an intrusion prevention system.

B. They can limit unauthorized user access to protect data.

C. Each wireless access point requires its own firewall

D. They must be placed only at locations where the private network connects to the internet.

E. They can prevent attacks from the internet only.

Correct Answer: AB

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 32

Which two statements about data VLANs on access ports are true ? ( Choose two)

A. They can be configured as trunk ports

B. Two or more VLANs can be configured on the interface

C. 802.1Q encapsulation must be configured on the interface

D. Exactly one VLAN can be configured on the interface.

E. They can be configured as host ports.

Correct Answer: DE

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 33

Where does the configuration reside when a helper address is configured to support DHCP ?

A. on the switch trunk interface.

B. on the router closest to the client.

C. on the router closest to the server.

D. on every router along the path.

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 34

Which command can you enter to configure an IPV6 floating static route?

A. Router(config)# ipv6 route static resolve default

B. Router(config)# ipv6 route::/0 serail0/1

C. Router(config)# ipv6 route FE80:0202::/32 serail 0/1 201

D. Router(config)# ipv6 route FE80:0202::/32 serail 0/1 1

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 35

How does NAT overloading provide one-to-many address translation?

A. It uses a pool of addresses

B. It converts IPV4 addresses to unused IPv6 Addresses

C. It assigns a unique TCP/UDP port to each session

D. It uses virtual MAC Address and Virtual IP Addresses

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 36

Which three options are types of Layer 2 network attack ? (Choose three)

A. Spoofing attacks

B. Vlan Hopping

C. botnet attacks

D. DDOS attacks

E. ARP Attacks

F. Brute force attacks

Correct Answer: ABE

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 37

How many broadcast domains are shown in the graphic assuming only the default VLAN is confgured on the

switches?

A. one

B. two

C. six

D. twelve

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 38

What does split-horizon do?

A. Prevent routing loop in distance vector protocol

B. Prevent switching loop in distance vector protocol

C. Prevent switching loop in link-state protocol

D. Prevent routing loop in link-state protocol

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 39

Which three statements correcctly describe Network Device A? (Choose three.)

A. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does not require an IP address.

B. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does require an IP address on a unique IP

subnet.

C. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 2 device for the PCs to communicate with

each other.

D. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 3 device for the PCs to communicate with

each other.

E. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, each interface does not require an IP address.

Correct Answer: BDE

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 40

Refer to the exhibit

At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role?

A. Switch3, port fa0/1

B. Switch3, port fa0/12

C. Switch4, port fa0/11

D. Switch4, port fa0/2

E. Switch3, port Gi0/1

F. Switch3, port Gi0/2

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 41

Refer to the exhibit

Why is flash memory erased prior to upgrading the IOS image from the TFTP server?

A. The router cannot verify that the Cisco IOS image currently in flash is valid.

B. Flash memory on Cisco routers can contain only a single IOS image.

C. Erasing current flash content is requested during the copy dialog.

D. In order for the router to use the new image as the default, it must be the only IOS image in flash.

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 42

The network shown in the diagram is experiencing connectivity problems. Which of the following will correct

the problems? (Choose two.)

A. Configure the gateway on Host A as 10.1.1.1.

B. Configure the gateway on Host B as 10.1.2.254.

C. Configure the IP address of Host A as 10.1.2.2.

D. Configure the IP address of Host B as 10.1.2.2.

E. Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255.255.255.224.

F. Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255.255.255.240.

Correct Answer: BD

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 43

Which path does a router choose when it receives a packet with multiple possible paths to the destination over

different routing protocols?

A. the path with both the lowest administrative distance and the highest metric

B. the path with the lowest administrative distance

C. the path with the lowest metric

D. the path with both the lowest administrative distance and lowest metric

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 44

Which command is used to know the duplex speed of serial link?

A. show line

B. show interface

C. show protocol

D. show run

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 45

What command is used to configure a switch as authoritative NTP server ?

A. switch(config)#ntp master 3

B. switch(config)#ntp peer 193.168.2.2

C. switch(config)#ntp server 193.168.2.2

D. switch(config)#ntp source 193.168.2.2

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 46

Which command is used to build DHCP pool?

A. ip dhcp pool DHCP

B. ip dhcp conflict

C. ip dhcp-server pool DHCP

D. ip dhcp-client pool DHCP

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 47

How to configure RIPv2? (Choose Two.)

A. Enable RIP

B. Connect RIP to WAN interface

C. Enable no auto-summary

D. Enable authentication

Correct Answer: AC

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 48

OSPF enable on interface with multiple ipv6 prefix which ip will OSPF use?

A. higest prefix

B. lowest prefix

C. all prefix

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 49

Which switch port security allows increment counter?

A. access

B. protect

C. restrict

D. shutdown

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 50

Which address prefix does OSPFv3 use when multiple IPv6 address are configured on a single interface?

A. all prefix on the interface

B. the prefix that the administrator configure for OSPFv3 use

C. the lowest prefix on the interface

D. the highest prefix on the interface

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 51

Which statement about EIGRP on IPv6 device is true?

A. the configuration uses secondary ip add

B. the config uses process number

C. the nei of each device are directly configured

D. it is configured directly on the interface

Correct Answer: D

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/enhanced-interior-gateway-routing-protocoleigrp/

113267-eigrp-ipv6-00.html

QUESTION 52

Which function does IP SLA ICMP ECHO operation perform to assist with troubleshooting?

A. one way jitter measurement

B. packet-loss detection

C. hop-by-hop response time

D. congestion detection

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

IP SLA generates ICMP traffic and measures Round Trip Delay for entire path http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/

td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipsla/configuration/15-mt/sla-15-mt-book/sla_icmp_echo.html

QUESTION 53

Which address class includes network 191.168.0.1/27?

A. Class C

B. Class B

C. Class D

D. Class A

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 54

On which type of port can switches interconnect for multi-VLAN communication?

A. interface port

B. access port

C. switch port

D. trunk port

Correct Answer: D

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 55

Refer to the exhibit. If R1 sends traffic to 192.168.101.45 the traffic is sent through which interface?

A. FastEthernet0/1

B. FastEthernet0/0

C. FastEthernet1/0

D. FastEthernet1/1

Correct Answer: D

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 56

How does a router handle an incoming packet whose destination network is missing from the Routing table?

A. it discards the packet.

B. it broadcasts the packet to each network on the router.

C. it routes the packet to the default route.

D. it broadcasts the packet to each interface on the router.

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 57

When a router is unable to find a known route in the routing table, how does it handle the packet?

A. It sends the packet to the next hop address

B. It sends the packet to the gateway of last resort

C. It discards the packet

D. It sends the packet over the route with the best metric

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 58

Which IPV6 function serves the same purpose as ARP entry verification on an IPv4 network?

A. interface ip address verification

B. MAC address table verification

C. neighbor discovery verification

D. Routing table entry verification

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 59

Which HSRP feature was new in HSRPv2?

A. VLAN group numbers that are greater than 255

B. Virtual MAC addresses

C. tracking

D. preemption

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 60

Refer to exhibit. Which command can you enter to verify link speed and duplex setting on the interface?

A. router#show ip protocols

B. router#show startup-config

C. router#show line

D. router#show interface gig 0/1

Correct Answer: D

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 61

Which configuration command can you apply to a router so that its local interface becomes active if all other

routers in the group fail?

A. Router(config)#standby 1 preempt

B. No additional configuration is required

C. Router(config)#standby 1 Priority 250

D. Router(config)#standby 1 track Ethernet

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 62

Which two statements about unique local IPv6 addresses are true?

A. They are identical to IPv4 private addresses.

B. They are defined by RFC 1884

C. They use the prefix FEC0::/10

D. They use the prefix FC00::/7

E. They can be routed on the IPv6 global internet.

Correct Answer: AD

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 63

Which DTP switch port mode allows the port to create a trunk link if the neighboring port is in trunk mode,

dynamic desirable mode, or desirable auto mode?

A. trunk

B. access

C. dynamic desirable

D. dynamic auto

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 64

When you troubleshoot an IPv4 connectivity issue on a router, which three router configuration checks you

must perform?

A. Verify that the router interface IP address IP address is correct.

B. Verify that the DNS is configured correctly.

C. Verify that the router and the host use the same subnet mask.

D. Verify that the router firmware is up-to-date.

E. Verify that a default route is configured.

F. Verify that the route appears in the Routing table

Correct Answer: ACF

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 65

Configuration of which option is required on a Cisco switch for the Cisco IP phone to work?

A. PortFast on the interface

B. the interface as an access port to allow the voice VLAN ID

C. a voice VLAN ID in interface and global configuration mode

D. Cisco Discovery Protocol in global configuration mode

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Configure the Switch Port to Carry Both Voice and Data TrafficWhen you connect an IP phone to a switch

using a trunk link, it can cause high CPU utilization in the switches. As all the VLANs for a particular interface

are trunked to the phone, it increases the number of STP instances the switch has to manage. This increases

the CPU utilization. Trunking also causes unnecessary broadcast / multicast / unknown unicast traffic to hit the

phone link. In order to avoid this, remove the trunk configuration and keep the voice and access VLAN

configured along with Quality of Service (QoS). Technically, it is still a trunk, but it is called a Multi-VLAN

Access Port (MVAP). Because voice and data traffic can travel through the same port, you should specify a

different VLAN for each type of traffic. You can configure a switch port to forward voice and data traffic on

different VLANs. Configure IP phone ports with a voice VLAN configuration. This configuration creates a

pseudo trunk, but does not require you to manually prune the unnecessary VLANs. The voice VLAN feature

enables access ports to carry IP voice traffic from an IP phone.

The voice VLAN feature is disabled by default. The Port Fast feature is automatically enabled when voice

VLAN is configured. When you disable voice VLAN, the Port Fast feature is not automatically disabled

QUESTION 66

Which method does a connected trunk port use to tag VLAN traffic?

A. IEEE 802 1w

B. IEEE 802 1D

C. IEEE 802 1Q

D. IEEE 802 1p

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 67

Which RFC was created to alleviate the depletion of IPv4 public addresses?

A. RFC 4193

B. RFC 1519

C. RFC 1518

D. RFC 1918

Correct Answer: D

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 68

What is the default lease time for a DHCP binding?

A. 24 hours

B. 12 hours

C. 48 hours

D. 36 hours

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

By default, each IP address assigned by a DHCP Server comes with a one- day lease, which is the amount of

time that the address is valid. To change the lease value for an IP address, use the following command in

DHCP pool configuration mode:

QUESTION 69

Which NAT type is used to translate a single inside address to a single outside address?

A. dynamic NAT

B. NAT overload

C. PAT

D. static NAT

Correct Answer: D

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Network address translation (NAT) is the process of modifying IP address information in IP packet headers

while in transit across a traffic routing device. There are two different types of NAT: NAT PAT

QUESTION 70

Which network topology allows all traffic to flow through a central hub?

A. bus

B. star

C. mesh

D. ring

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 71

Which statement about a router on a stick is true?

A. Its date plane router traffic for a single VI AN over two or more switches.

B. It uses multiple subinterfaces of a single interface to encapsulate traffic for different VLANs on the same

subnet

C. It requires the native VLAN to be disabled.

D. It uses multiple subinterfaces of a single interface to encapsulate traffic for different VLANs.

Correct Answer: D

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

https://www.freeccnaworkbook.com/workbooks/ccna/configuring-inter-vlan-routing-router-on-astick

QUESTION 72

By default, how many MAC addresses are permitted to be learned on a switch port with port security enabled?

A. 8

B. 2

C. 1

D. 0

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 73

Which device allows users to connect to the network using a single or double radio?

A. access point

B. switch

C. wireless controller

D. firewall

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 74

When enabled, which feature prevents routing protocols from sending hello messages on an interface?

A. virtual links

B. passive-interface

C. directed neighbors

D. OSPF areas

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

You can use the passive-interface command in order to control the advertisement of routing information. The

command enables the suppression of routing updates over some interfaces while it allows updates to be

exchanged normally over other interfaces. With most routing protocols, the passive-interface command

restricts outgoing advertisements only.

But, when used with Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP), the effect is slightly different. This

document demonstrates that use of the passive-interface command in EIGRP suppresses the exchange of

hello packets between two routers, which results in the loss of their neighbor relationship. This stops not only

routing updates from being advertised, but it also suppresses incoming routing updates. This document also

discusses the configuration required in order to allow the suppression of outgoing routing updates, while it also

allows incoming routing updates to be learned normally from the neighbor

QUESTION 75

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the effect of this configuration?

A. The VLAN 10 VTP configuration is displayed

B. VLAN 10 spanning-tree output is displayed

C. The VLAN 10 configuration is saved when the router exits VLAN configuration mode

D. VLAN 10 is added to the VLAN database

Correct Answer: D

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 76

Which route source code represents the routing protocol with a default administrative distance of 90 in the

routing table?

A. S

B. E

C. D

D. R

E. O

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

SStatic

EEGP

DEIGRP

RRIP

OOSPF

Default Administrative distance of EIGRP protocol is 90 then answer is C.

Default Distance Value TableThis table lists the administrative distance default values of the

protocols that Cisco supports:

Route Source

Default Distance Values

Connected interface

Static route

Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) summary route External Border Gateway

Protocol (BGP)

Internal EIGRP

IGRP

OSPF

Intermediate System-to-Intermediate System (IS-IS) Routing Information Protocol (RIP)

Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP)

On Demand Routing (ODR)

External EIGRP

Internal BGP

Unknown*

QUESTION 77

Which statement about native VLAN traffic is true?

A. Cisco Discovery Protocol traffic travels on the native VLAN by default

B. Traffic on the native VLAN is tagged with 1 by default

C. Control plane traffic is blocked on the native VLAN.

D. The native VLAN is typically disabled for security reasons

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 78

Which statement about unicast frame forwarding on a switch is true?

A. The TCAM table stores destination MAC addresses

B. If the destination MAC address is unknown, the frame is flooded to every port that is configured in the

same VLAN except on the port that it was received on.

C. The CAM table is used to determine whether traffic is permitted or denied on a switch

D. The source address is used to determine the switch port to which a frame is forwarded

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 79

Which component of the routing table ranks routing protocols according to their preferences?

A. administrative distance

B. next hop

C. metric

D. routing protocol code

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Administrative distance - This is the measure of trustworthiness of the source of the route. If a router learns

about a destination from more than one routing protocol, administrative distance is compared and the

preference is given to the routes with lower administrative distance. In other words, it is the believability of the

source of the route

QUESTION 80

Which two command can you enter to display the current time sources statistics on devices ? (Choose two)

A. Show ntp associations.

B. Show clock details

C. Show clock

D. Show time

E. Show ntp status

Correct Answer: AE

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 81

When is the most appropriate time to escalate an issue that you troubleshooting?

A. When you lack the proper to resolve the issue.

B. When a more urgent issue that requires your intervention is detected

C. When you have gathered all information about an issue

D. When you have been unable to resolve the issue after 30 min

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 82

Which three encapsulation layers in the OSI model are combined into the TCP/IP application layer? (Choose

three)

A. Session

B. transport

C. presentation

D. application

E. data-link

F. network

Correct Answer: ACD

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 83

Which effect of the passive-interface command on R1 is true?

A. It prevents interface Fa0/0 from sending updates.

B. Interface Fa 0/0 operates in RIPv1 mode.

C. It removes the 172.16.0.0 network from all updates on all interfaces on R1.

D. It removes the 172.16.0.0 network from all updates on all interfaces on R1.

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 84

Refer to the exhibit, you determine that Computer A cannot ping Computer Which reason for the problem is

most likely true?

A. The Subnet mask for Computer A is incorrect

B. The default gateway address for Computer A is incorrect

C. The subnet mask for computer B is incorrect.

D. The default gateway address for computer B is incorrect

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 85

Refer to the exhibit.What two results would occur if the hub were to be replaced with a switch that is

configured with one Ethernet VLAN?(choose two)

A. The number of collision domains would decrease.

B. The number of collision domains would increase

C. The number of broadcast domains would remain the same.

D. The number of collision domains would remain the same.

E. The number of broadcast domains would increase.

Correct Answer: BC

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 86

How does a DHCP server dynamically assign IP addresses to hosts?

A. Addresses are permanently assigned so that the host uses the same address at all times

B. Addresses are assigned for a fixed period of time. At the end of the period, a new request for an address

must be made, and another address is then assigned.

C. Addresses are leased to hosts. A host will usually keep the same address by periodically contacting the

DHCP server to renew the lease

D. Addresses are allocated after a negotiation between the server and the host to determine the length of the

agreement

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 87

What is the danger of the permit any entry in a NAT access list?

A. It can lead to overloaded resources on the router

B. It can cause too many addresses to be assigned to the same interface.

C. It can disable the overload command.

D. It prevents the correct translation of IP addresses on the inside network.

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 88

Refer to the exhibit. If R1 receives a packet destined to 172.16.1.1, to which IP address does it send the

packet?

A. 192.168.14.4

B. 192.168.12.2

C. 192.168.13.3

D. 192.168.15.5

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 89

When you enable PortFast on a switch port, the port immediately transitions to which state?

A. Blocking

B. Forwarding

C. Learning

D. Listening

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 90

Which two statements about floating static routes are true? (Choose two)

A. They are routes to the exact /32 destination address

B. They are used when a route to the destination network is missing

C. They have a higher administrative distance than the default static route administrative distance

D. They are used as back-up routes when the primary route goes down

E. They are dynamic routes that are learned from a server

Correct Answer: CD

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 91

If router R1 knows a static route to a destination network and then learns about the same destination network

through a dynamic routing protocol, how does R1 respond?

A. It refuses to advertise the dynamic route to other neighbors

B. It sends a withdrawal signal to the neighboring router

C. It disables the routing protocol

D. It prefers the static route

Correct Answer: D

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 92

Which IEEE mechanism is responsible for the authentication of devices when they attempt to connect to a

local network?

A. 802.1x

B. 802.11

C. 802.2x

D. 802.3x

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 93

Which switch would STP choose to become the root bridge in the selection process?

A. 32768: 11-22-33-44-55-66

B. 32768: 22-33-44-55-66-77

C. 32769: 11-22-33-44-55-65

D. 32769: 22-33-44-55-66-78

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 94

Refer to the graphic. R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3. What are possible

reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)

A. All of the routers need to be configured for backbone Area 1.

B. R1 and R2 are the DR and BDR, so OSPF will not establish neighbor adjacency with R3

C. A static route has been configured from R1 to R3 and prevents the neighbor adjacency from being

established.

D. The hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3.

E. EIGRP is also configured on these routers with a lower administrative distance.

F. R1 and R3 are configured in different areas.

Correct Answer: DF

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 95

For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? (Choose two.)

A. to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2

B. to allow communication with devices on a different network

C. to differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet

D. to establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first

E. to allow communication between different devices on the same network

F. to allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown

Correct Answer: AE

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 96

Which major component of the network virtualization architecture isolate users according to policy?

A. policy enforcement

B. access control

C. network services virtualization

D. Path Isolation.

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 97

2 authentication type of MLPPP

A. PEAP

B. LEAP

C. PAP

D. CHAP

E. TACACS+

Correct Answer: CD

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

http://www.firewall.cx/networking-topics/network-address-translation-nat/233-nat-overload-part-1.html

QUESTION 98

What is the effect of the overload keyword in a static NAT translation configuration?

A. It enables port address translation.

B. It enables the use of a secondary pool of IP addresses when the first pool is depleted

C. It enables the inside interface to receive traffic.

D. It enables the outside interface to forward traffic.

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 99

What are the requirements for running VTP (choose two)

A. VTP domain names must be different

B. VTP domain names must be the same

C. VTP server must have the highest revision numbers

D. All devices need to have the same VTP version

Correct Answer: BD

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 100

What is the use of IPv4 private space (choose two)

A. connect applications together

B. save global address space

C. something about NAT

D. allow intra-company communication

Correct Answer: AB

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 101

Assuming a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0, three of the following addresses are valid host addresses. Which

are these addresses? (Choose three.)

A. 172.16.9.0

B. 172.16.8.0

C. 172.16.31.0

D. 172.16.20.0

Correct Answer: ACD

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 102

Which type does a port become when it receives the best BPDU on a bridge?

A. The designated port

B. The backup port

C. The alternate port

D. The root port

Correct Answer: D

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 103

Which value can you modify to configure a specific interface as the preferred forwarding interface?

A. The interface number

B. The port priority

C. The VLAN priority

D. The hello time

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 104

Which statement about VLAN configuration is true?

A. The switch must be in VTP server or transparent mode before you can configure a VLAN

B. The switch must be in config-vlan mode before you configure an extended VLAN

C. Dynamic inter-VLAN routing is supported on VLAN2 through VLAN 4064`

D. A switch in VTP transparent mode save the VLAN databases to the running configuration only

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 105

Refer to the exhibit. Which switch provides the spanning-tree designated port role for the network segment

that services the printers?

A. Switch1

B. Switch2

C. Switch3

D. Switch4

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 106

In which two situations should you use out-of-band management?

A. when a network device fails to forward packets

B. when you require ROMMON access

C. when management applications need concurrent access to the device

D. when you require administrator access from multiple locations

E. when the control plane fails to respond

Correct Answer: AB

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 107

Which command can you enter to configure a local username with an encrypted password and EXEC mode

user privileges?

A. Router(config)#username jdone privilege 1 password 7 08314D5D1A48

B. Router(config)#username jdone privilege 1 password 7 PASSWORD1

C. Router(config)#username jdone privilege 15 password 0 08314D5D1A48

D. Router(config)#username jdone privilege 15 password 0 PASSWORD1

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 108

What happens when an 802.11a node broadcasts within the range of an 802.11g access point?

A. The access point transmits, but the node is unable to receive.

B. A connection occurs.

C. Both the node and the access point are unable to transmit.

D. The node transmits, but the access point is unable to receive.

Correct Answer: D

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 109

Which value is indicated by the next hop in a routing table?

A. preference of the route source

B. IP address of the remote router for forwarding the packets

C. how the route was learned

D. exit interface IP address for forwarding the packets

Correct Answer: D

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 110

Which statement about the inside interface configuration in a NAT deployment is true?

A. It is defined globally

B. It identifies the location of source addresses for outgoing packets to be translated using access or route

maps.

C. It must be configured if static NAT is used

D. It identifies the public IP address that traffic will use to reach the internet.

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 111

Which option is the default switch port port-security violation mode?

A. shutdown

B. protect

C. shutdown vlan

D. restrict

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 112

Which entity assigns IPv6 addresses to end users?

A. ICANN

B. APNIC

C. RIR

D. ISPs

Correct Answer: D

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 113

which value indicate the distance from the ntp authoritative time source?

A. priority

B. location

C. layer

D. stratum

Correct Answer: D

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 114

Which NTP type designates a router without an external reefrence clock as an authoritative time source?

A. server

B. peer

C. master

D. client

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 115

Which 3 feature are represented by A letter in AAA? (Choose Three)

A. authorization

B. accounting

C. authentication

D. accountability

E. accessibility

F. authority

Correct Answer: ABC

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 116

Which of the following are the valid numbers of standard ACL (choosse 2)

A. 50

B. 1550

C. 150

D. 1250

E. 2050

Correct Answer: AB

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 117

How does NAT overloading provide one to many address translation?

A. it uses a pool of address

B. it converts ipv4 address to unused IPv6 address

C. it uses virtual mac address and virtual IP address

D. it assigns a unique TCP/UDP port to each session

Correct Answer: D

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

PAT assigns a unique source port for each UDP or TCP session

QUESTION 118

When you deploy multilink PPP on your network, where must you configure the group IP Address on each

device?

A. in the global config

B. Under serial interface

C. Under the routing protocol

D. Under the multilink interface

Correct Answer: D

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 119

What are two statement for SSH?

A. use port 22

B. unsecured

C. encrypted

D. most common remote-access method

E. operate at transport

Correct Answer: AE

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 120

If a route is not present in the routing table for a particular destination, what would the router do?

A. Default route

B. Flood

C. Drop

D. No Answer

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

drop (by default wlang routing nangyayari unless they are directly connected, default route need to

implemented)

QUESTION 121

Host is able to ping a web server but it is not able to do HTTP request.

A. ACL blocking port 23

B. ACL blocking All ports

C. ACL blocking port 80

D. ACL blocking port 443

E. None of the above

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 122

Which NTP command configures the local devices as an NTP reference clock source?

A. NTP Peer

B. NTP Broadcast

C. NTP Master

D. NTP Server

Correct Answer: D

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 123

Which component of the Cisco SDN solution serves as the centralized management system?

A. Cisco OpenDaylight

B. Cisco ACI

C. Cisco APIC

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

The Cisco APIC provides centralized access to all fabric information, optimizes the application lifecycle for

scale and performance, and supports flexible application provisioning

across physical and virtual resources.

QUESTION 124

Which item represents the standard IP ACL?

A. Access-list 110 permit any any

B. Access-list 50 deny 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.255

C. Access list 101 deny tvp any host 192.168.1.1

D. Access-list 2500 deny tcp any host 192.168.1.1 eq 22

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 125

Which command can you enter to verify that a 128-bit address is live and responding?

A. Traceroute

B. telnet

C. ping

D. ping ipv6

Correct Answer: D

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 126

Which two statements about IPv4 multicast traffic are true?

A. It burdens the source host without affecting remote hosts

B. It uses a minimum amount of network bandwidth.

C. It is bandwidth-intensive.

D. It simultaneously delivers multiple streams of data.

E. It is the most efficient way to deliver data to multiple receivers

Correct Answer: BE

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 127

If multiple prefix are assigned to one interface, Which prefix is chosen… something like that

A. The higher prefix

B. the lower prefix

C. Other option

D. Other option

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 128

What will you do if you forgot the password of your router

A. remote connection

B. physical connection is needed

C. XXXX

D. XXXX

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 129

Where information about untrusted hosts are stored?

A. CAM table

B. Trunk table

C. MAC table

D. binding database

Correct Answer: D

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Builds and maintains the DHCP snooping binding database, which contains information about untrusted

hosts with leased IP addresses.

QUESTION 130

What is one benefit of PVST+?

A. PVST+ supports Layer 3 load balancing without loops.

B. PVST+ reduces the CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.

C. PVST+ allows the root switch location to be optimized per VLAN.

D. PVST+ automatically selects the root bridge location, to provide optimized bandwidth usage.

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:

The PVST+ provides Layer 2 load-balancing for the VLAN on which it runs. You can create different logical

topologies by using the VLANs on your network to ensure that all of your

links are used but that no one link is oversubscribed. Each instance of PVST+ on a VLAN has a single root

switch. This root switch propagates the spanning-tree information associated with that VLAN to all other

switches in the network. Because each switch has the same information about the network, this process

ensures that the network topology is maintained and optimized per VLAN.

QUESTION 131

Which statement about VLAN operation on Cisco Catalyst switches is true?

A. When a packet is received from an 802.1Q trunk, the VLAN ID can be determined from the source MAC

address and the MAC address table.

B. Unknown unicast frames are retransmitted only to the ports that belong to the same VLAN.

C. Broadcast and multicast frames are retransmitted to ports that are configured on different VLAN.

D. Ports between switches should be configured in access mode so that VLANs can span across the ports.

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:

Each VLAN resides in its own broadcast domain, so incoming frames with unknown destinations are only

transmitted to ports that reside in the same VLAN as the incoming frame.

QUESTION 132

Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports. Assuming the default switch configuration, which

switch is elected as the root bridge for the spanning-tree instance of VLAN 1?

A. the switch with the highest MAC address

B. the switch with the lowest MAC address

C. the switch with the highest IP address

D. the switch with the lowest IP address

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:

Each switch in your network will have a Bridge ID Priority value, more commonly referred to as a BID.

This BID is a combination of a default priority value and the switch's MAC address, with the priority

value listed first. The lowest BID will win the election process.

For example, if a Cisco switch has the default priority value of 32,768 and a MAC address of 11-22-33-

44-55-66, the BID would be 32768:11-22-33-44-55-66. Therefore, if the switch priority is left at the

default, the MAC address is the deciding factor in the root bridge election.

QUESTION 133

Which two options are primary responsibilities of the APlC-EM controller? (Choose two.)

A. lt automates network actions between different device types.

B. lt provides robust asset management.

C. lt tracks license usage and Cisco lOS versions.

D. lt automates network actions between legacy equipment.

E. lt makes network functions programmable.

Correct Answer: AE

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 134

Which command can you enter to troubleshoot the failure of address assignments?

A. show ip dhcp pool

B. show ip dhcp database

C. show ip dhcp import

D. clear ip dhcp server statistics

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 135

Which command can be used from a PC to verify the connectivity between hosts that connect through a

switch in the same LAN?

A. ping address

B. tracert address

C. traceroute address

D. arp address

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

ICMP pings are used to verify connectivity between two IP hosts. Traceroute is used to verify the

router hop path traffic will take but in this case since the hosts are in the same

LAN there will be no router hops involved.

QUESTION 136

Refer to the exhibit.

After you apply the given configuration to R1, you notice that it failed to enable OSPF Which action can you

take to correct the problem?

A. Configure a loopback interface on R1

B. Enable lPv6 unicast routing on R1.

C. Configure an lPv4 address on interface FO/O.

D. Configure an autonomous system number on OSPF.

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 137

Which type of MAC address is aged automatically by the switch?

A. automatic

B. manual

C. dynamic

D. static

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 138

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose

two.)

A. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.

B. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.

C. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.

D. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.

E. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit.

F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Switch2 trunk ports must

be configured using the same encapsulation type.

Correct Answer: DF

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

In order for multiple VLANs to connect to a single physical interface on a Cisco router, subinterfaces

must be used, one for each VLAN. This is known as the router on a stick

configuration. Also, for any trunk to be formed, both ends of the trunk must agree on the

encapsulation type, so each one must be configured for 802.1q or ISL.

QUESTION 139

What value is primarily used to determine which port becomes the root port on each nonroot switch in a

spanning-tree topology?

A. path cost

B. lowest port MAC address

C. VTP revision number

D. highest port priority number

E. port priority number and MAC address

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

The path cost to the root bridge is the most important value to determine which port will become the

root port on each non-root switch. In particular, the port with lowest cost to the root bridge will

become root port (on non-root switch).

QUESTION 140

Which two protocols are used by bridges and/or switches to prevent loops in a layer 2 network? (Choose two.)

A. 802.1d

B. VTP

C. 802.1q

D. STP

E. SAP

Correct Answer: AD

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

This question is to examine the STP protocol. STP (802.1d) is used to prevent Layer 2 loops.

802.1q is a Frame Relay protocol which belongs to VLAN. SAP is a concept of the OSI model.

QUESTION 141

Refer to the exhibit.

lf RTRO1 as configured as shown, which three addresses will be received by other routers that are running

ElGRP on the network? (Choose three.)

A. 172.16.4.O

B. 1O.O.O.O

C. 172.16.O.O

D. 192.168.2.O

E. 192.168.O.O

F. 1O.4.3.O

Correct Answer: BCD

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 142

Which two statements about TACACS+ are true? (Choose two.)

A. lt can run on a UNlX server.

B. lt authenticates against the user database on the local device.

C. lt is more secure than AAA authentication.

D. lt is enabled on Cisco routers by default.

E. lt uses a managed database.

Correct Answer: BC

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 143

Which command enables RSTP on a switch?

A. spanning-tree uplinkfast

B. spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst

C. spanning-tree backbonefast

D. spanning-tree mode mst

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) is an enhancement of the original STP 802.1D protocol. The RSTP

802.1w protocol is an IEEE open implementation. Cisco has its own proprietary implementation of

RSTP, that includes the benefits of its Per-VLAN spanning tree protocols, called Rapid-PVST+.

To activate the Rapid-PVST+ protocol: switch(config)#spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst

QUESTION 144

A switch is configured with all ports assigned to VLAN 2 with full duplex FastEthernet to segment existing

departmental traffic. What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new VLAN on the switch?

A. More collision domains will be created.

B. IP address utilization will be more efficient.

C. More bandwidth will be required than was needed previously.

D. An additional broadcast domain will be created.

Correct Answer: D

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 145

VLAN 3 is not yet configured on your switch. What happens if you set the switchport access vlan 3 command

in interface configuration mode?

A. The command is rejected.

B. The port turns amber.

C. The command is accepted and the respective VLAN is added to vlan.dat.

D. The command is accepted and you must configure the VLAN manually.

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

The "switchport access vlan 3"will put that interface as belonging to VLAN 3 while also updated the VLAN

database automatically to include VLAN 3.

QUESTION 146

Cisco Catalyst switches CAT1 and CAT2 have a connection between them using ports FA0/13. An 802.1Q

trunk is configured between the two switches. On CAT1, VLAN 10 is chosen as native, but on CAT2 the native

VLAN is not specified. What will happen in this scenario?

A. 802.1Q giants frames could saturate the link.

B. VLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send untagged frames.

C. A native VLAN mismatch error message will appear.

D. VLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send tagged frames.

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

A "native VLAN mismatch" error will appear by CDP if there is a native VLAN mismatch on an 802.1Q

link. “VLAN mismatch” can cause traffic from one vlan to leak into another vlan.

QUESTION 147

Refer to the exhibit

All switch ports are assigned to the correct VLANs, but none of the hosts connected to SwitchA can

communicate with hosts in the same VLAN connected to SwitchB. Based on the output shown, what is

the most likely problem?

A. The access link needs to be configured in multiple VLANs.

B. The link between the switches is configured in the wrong VLAN.

C. The link between the switches needs to be configured as a trunk.

D. VTP is not configured to carry VLAN information between the switches.

E. Switch IP addresses must be configured in order for traffic to be forwarded between the switches.

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

In order to pass traffic from VLANs on different switches, the connections between the switches must

be configured as trunk ports.

QUESTION 148

What is the function of the command switchport trunk native vlan 999 on a Cisco Catalyst switch?

A. It creates a VLAN 999 interface.

B. It designates VLAN 999 for untagged traffic.

C. It blocks VLAN 999 traffic from passing on the trunk.

D. It designates VLAN 999 as the default for all unknown tagged traffic.

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Configuring the Native VLAN for Untagged Traffic A trunk port configured with 802.1Q tagging can

receive both tagged and untagged traffic. By default, the switch forwards untagged traffic in the native

VLAN configured for the port. The native VLAN is VLAN 1 by default.

QUESTION 149

Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers?

A. Bandwidth

B. Bandwidth and Delay

C. Bandwidth, Delay, and MTU

D. Bandwidth, MTU, Reliability, Delay, and Load

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

The well-known formula to calculate OSPF cost is Cost = 108 / Bandwidth

QUESTION 150

Which command shows your active Telnet connections?

A. show cdp neigbors

B. show session

C. show users

D. show vty logins

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

The "show users" shows telnet/ssh connections to your router while "show sessions" shows telnet/ssh

connections from your router (to other devices). The question asks about "your active Telnet

connections", meaning connections from your router so the answer should be A.

QUESTION 151

Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the exhibited routing table, how will packets from a host within the 192.168.10.192/26 LAN be

forwarded to 192.168.10.1?

A. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1.

B. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1 to R2.

C. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1 AND from R3 to R1.

D. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1.

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 152

Refer to the exhibit. You have discovered that computers on the 192 168 10 0/24 network can ping their

default gateway, but they cannot connect to any resources on a remote network. Which reason for the

problem is most likely true?

A. The 192.168.12 0/24 network is missing from OSPF.

B. The OSPF process ID is incorrect.

C. The OSPF area number is incorrect.

D. An ARP table entry is missing for 192.168.10.0.

E. A VLAN number is incorrect for 192.168.10.0.

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

NEW

QUESTION 153

If three devices are plugged into one port on a switch and two devices are plugged into a different port, how

many collision domains are on the switch?

A. 2

B. 4

C. 5

D. 6

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

NEW

QUESTION 154

Which three commands must you enter to create a trunk that allows VLAN 20? (Choose three.)

A. Switch(config-if)#switchport mode dynamic auto

B. Switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk

C. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 20

D. Switch(config-if)#switchport mode dynamic desirable

E. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation dotlq

F. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk native vlan 20

Correct Answer: BEF

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

NEW

QUESTION 155

Which three options are types of Layer 2 network attack? (Choose three.)

A. ARP attacks

B. brute force attacks

C. spoofing attacks

D. DDOS attacks

E. VLAN hopping

F. botnet attacks

Correct Answer: ACE

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

NEW

QUESTION 156

If you configure syslog messages without specifying the logging trap level, which log messages will the router

send?

A. error conditions only

B. warning and error conditions only

C. normal but significant conditions only

D. all levels except debugging

E. informational messages only

Correct Answer: D

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

NEW

QUESTION 157

Which WAN topology provides a direct connection from each site to all other sites on the network?

A. single-homed

B. full mesh

C. point-to-point

D. hub-and-spoke

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

NEW

QUESTION 158

Which two passwords must be supplied in order to connect by Telnet to a properly secured Cisco switch and

make changes to the device configuration? (Choose two.)

A. tty password

B. enable secret password

C. vty password

D. aux password

E. console password

F. username password

Correct Answer: BC

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

NEW

QUESTION 159

Refer to the exhibit. Which user-mode password has just been set?

A. Telnet

B. Auxiliary

C. SSH

D. Console

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

NEW

QUESTION 160

Which technology supports the stateless assignment of IPv6 addresses? (Choose Two)

A. autoconfiguration

B. DNS

C. DHCP

D. DHCPv6

Correct Answer: AD

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 161

What are two requirements for an HSRP group? (Choose two.)

A. exactly one active router

B. one or more standby routers

C. one or more backup virtual routers

D. exactly one standby active router

E. exactly one backup virtual router

Correct Answer: AB

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 162

After you configure the Loopback0 interface, which command can you enter to verify the status of

the interface and determine whether fast switching is enabled?

A. Router#show ip interface loopback 0

B. Router#show run

C. Router#show interface loopback 0

D. Router#show ip interface brief

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 163

Which command sequence can you enter to create VLAN 20 and assign it to an interface on a switch?

A. Switch(config)#vlan 20

Switch(config)#Interface gig x/y

Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20

B. Switch(config)#Interface gig x/y

Switch(config-if)#vlan 20

Switch(config-vlan)#switchport access vlan 20

C. Switch(config)#vlan 20

Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20

Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk native vlan 20

D. Switch(config)#vlan 20

Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20

Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20

E. Switch(config)#vlan 20

Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20

Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 20

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 164

Which three commands can you use to set a router boot image? (Choose three.)

A. Router(config)# boot system flash c4500-p-mz.121-20.bin

B. Router(config)# boot system tftp c7300-js-mz.122-33.SB8a.bin

C. Router(config)#boot system rom c7301-advipservicesk9-mz.124-24.T4.bin

D. Router> boot flash:c180x-adventerprisek9-mz-124-6T.bin

E. Router(config)#boot flash:c180x-adventerprisek9-mz-124-6T.bin

F. Router(config)#boot bootldr bootflash:c4500-jk9s-mz.122-23f.bin

Correct Answer: ABC

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 165

Which two statements about IPv6 and routing protocols are true? (Choose two.)

A. Link-local addresses are used to form routing adjacencies.

B. OSPFv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.

C. EIGRP, OSPF, and BGP are the only routing protocols that support IPv6.

D. Loopback addresses are used to form routing adjacencies

E. EIGRPv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.

Correct Answer: AB

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 166

If primary and secondary root switches with priority 16384 both experience catastrophic losses,

which tertiary switch can take over?

A. a switch with priority 20480

B. a switch with priority 8192

C. a switch with priority 4096

D. a switch with priority 12288

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 167

Which two statements about late collisions are true? (Choose two.)

A. They may indicate a duplex mismatch.

B. By definition, they occur after the 512th bit of the frame has been transmitted.

C. They indicate received frames that did not pass the FCS match.

D. They are frames that exceed 1518 bytes.

E. They occur when CRC errors and interference occur on the cable.

Correct Answer: AB

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 168

Which command can you enter to set the default route for all traffic to an interface?

A. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 GigabitEthernet0/1

B. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 GigabitEthernet0/1

C. router(config-router)#default-information originate

D. router(config-router)#default-information originate always

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 169

Which two spanning-tree port states does RSTP combine to allow faster convergence? (Choose two.)

A. blocking

B. listening

C. learning

D. forwarding

E. discarding

Correct Answer: AB

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 170

If a router has four interfaces and each interface is connected to four switches, how many broadcast domains

are present on the router?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 4

D. 8

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 171

The left describes the types of cables, while the right describes the purposes of the cables. Drag the items on

the left to the proper locations. (Not all items can be used.)

(THE COMMUNITY SHARED THAT THERE IS ANOTHER OPTION SO STUDY ALL OF WHAT THIS

CABLES ARE FOR)

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 172

Match the items on the left with appropriate OSI layer on the right. (Not all options are used.)

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 173

Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router?

A. ipv6 local

B. ipv6 host

C. ipv6 unicast-routing

D. ipv6 neighbor

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 174

Refer to the exhibit. What is the most appropriate summarization for these routes?

A. 10.0.0.0 /21

B. 10.0.0.0 /22

C. 10.0.0.0 /23

D. 10.0.0.0 /24

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

The 10.0.0.0/22 subnet mask will include the 10.0.0.0, 10.0.1.0, 10.0.2.0, and 10.0.3.0 networks, and only

those four networks

QUESTION 175

Which set of commands is recommended to prevent the use of a hub in the access layer?

A. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk

switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1

B. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk

switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1

C. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access

switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1

D. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access

switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 176

A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One route is

from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 782. The

last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. Which route or routes will the router install in the routing table?

A. the OSPF route

B. the EIGRP route

C. the RIPv2 route

D. all three routes

E. the OSPF and RIPv2 routes

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 177

Two routers named Atlanta and Brevard are connected via their serial interfaces as illustrated, but they are

unable to communicate. The Atlanta router is known to have the correct

configuration.

A. incompatible IP address

B. insufficient bandwidth

C. incorrect subnet mask

D. incompatible encapsulation

E. link reliability too low

F. IPCP closed

Correct Answer: D

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 178

A network administrator needs to configure a serial link between the main office and a remote location. The

router at the remote office is a non-Cisco router. How should the network

administrator configure the serial interface of the main office router to make the connection?

A. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0

Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252

Main(config-if)# no shut

B. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0

Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252

Main(config-if)# encapsulation ppp

Main(config-if)# no shut

C. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0

Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252

Main(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay

Main(config-if)# authentication chap

Main(config-if)# no shut

D. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0

Main(config-if)#ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252

Main(config-if)#encapsulation ietf

Main(config-if)# no shut

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 179

Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuits and has built-in

security mechanisms?

A. HDLC

B. PPP

C. X.25

D. Frame Relay

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 180

Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be

the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)

A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.

B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.

C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.

D. Ensure the switch has power.

E. Reboot all of the devices.

F. Reseat all cables.

Correct Answer: BDF

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 181

A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The routers cannot

establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link.

The graphic shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on the

information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem?

A. The OSPF area is not configured properly.

B. The priority on R1 should be set higher.

C. The cost on R1 should be set higher.

D. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly.

E. A backup designated router needs to be added to the network.

F. The OSPF process ID numbers must match.

Correct Answer: D

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 182

What will happen if a private IP address is assigned to a public interface connected to an ISP?

A. Addresses in a private range will be not be routed on the Internet backbone.

B. Only the ISP router will have the capability to access the public network.

C. The NAT process will be used to translate this address to a valid IP address.

D. A conflict of IP addresses happens, because other public routers can use the same range.

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 183

Refer to the exhibit. The Bigtime router is unable to authenticate to the Littletime router. What is the cause of

the problem?

A. The usernames are incorrectly configured on the two routers.

B. The passwords do not match on the two routers.

C. CHAP authentication cannot be used on a serial interface.

D. The routers cannot be connected from interface S0/0 to interface S0/0.

E. With CHAP authentication, one router must authenticate to another router. The routers cannot be

configured to authenticate to each other.

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 184

What will be the result if the following configuration commands are implemented on a Cisco switch?

Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security

Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky

A. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the startup-configuration file.

B. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the running-configuration file.

C. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the VLAN database.

D. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the startup-configuration file if frames from that address

are received.

E. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the running-configuration file if frames from that

address are received.

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 185

Refer to the exhibit. The following commands are executed on interface fa0/1 of 2950Switch.

2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security

2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky

2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 1

The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives on interface fa0/1.

What two functions will occur when this frame is received by 2950Switch? (Choose two.)

A. The MAC address table will now have an additional entry of fa0/1 FFFF.FFFF.FFFF.

B. Only host A will be allowed to transmit frames on fa0/1.

C. This frame will be discarded when it is received by 2950Switch.

D. All frames arriving on 2950Switch with a destination of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be forwarded out fa0/1.

E. Hosts B and C may forward frames out fa0/1 but frames arriving from other switches will not be forwarded

out fa0/1.

F. Only frames from source 0000.00bb.bbbb, the first learned MAC address of 2950Switch, will be forwarded

out fa0/1.

Correct Answer: BD

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 186

Which command would you configure globally on a Cisco router that would allow you to view directly

connected Cisco devices?

A. enable cdp

B. cdp enable

C. cdp run

D. run cdp

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 187

A Cisco router is booting and has just completed the POST process. It is now ready to find and load an IOS

image. What function does the router perform next?

A. It checks the configuration register.

B. It attempts to boot from a TFTP server.

C. It loads the first image file in flash memory.

D. It inspects the configuration file in NVRAM for boot instructions.

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 188

What are three advantages of VLANs? (Choose three.)

A. VLANs establish broadcast domains in switched networks.

B. VLANs utilize packet filtering to enhance network security.

C. VLANs provide a method of conserving IP addresses in large networks.

D. VLANs provide a low-latency internetworking alternative to routed networks.

E. VLANs allow access to network services based on department, not physical location.

F. VLANs can greatly simplify adding, moving, or changing hosts on the network.

Correct Answer: AEF

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 189

Refer to the exhibit. The output that is shown is generated at a switch. Which three statements are true?

(Choose three.)

A. All ports will be in a state of discarding, learning, or forwarding.

B. Thirty VLANs have been configured on this switch.

C. The bridge priority is lower than the default value for spanning tree.

D. All interfaces that are shown are on shared media.

E. All designated ports are in a forwarding state.

F. This switch must be the root bridge for all VLANs on this switch.

Correct Answer: ACE

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 190

Which two commands can be used to verify a trunk link configuration status on a given Cisco switch

interface? (Choose two.)

A. show interface trunk

B. show interface interface

C. show ip interface brief

D. show interface vlan

E. show interface switchport

Correct Answer: AE

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 191

Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (Choose two.)

A. discarding

B. listening

C. learning

D. forwarding

E. disabled

Correct Answer: AD

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 192

Refer to the exhibit. A technician has installed SwitchB and needs to configure it for remote access from the

management workstation connected to SwitchA . Which set of commands is

required to accomplish this task?

A. SwitchB(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1

SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0

SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown

B. SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1

SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0

SwitchB(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0

SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown

C. SwitchB(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254

SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1

SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0

SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown

D. SwitchB(config)# ip default-network 192.168.8.254

SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1

SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0

SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown

E. SwitchB(config)# ip route 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0

SwitchB(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1

SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0

SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 193

Which of the following are benefits of VLANs? (Choose three.)

A. They increase the size of collision domains.

B. They allow logical grouping of users by function.

C. They can enhance network security.

D. They increase the size of broadcast domains while decreasing the number of collision domains.

E. They increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast domains.

F. They simplify switch administration.

Correct Answer: BCE

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 194

What are three benefits of implementing VLANs? (Choose three.)

A. A higher level of network security can be reached by separating sensitive data traffic from other network

traffic.

B. A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many physical groups to use the same

network infrastructure.

C. A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many logical networks to use the same

network infrastructure.

D. Broadcast storms can be mitigated by increasing the number of broadcast domains, thus reducing their

size.

E. Broadcast storms can be mitigated by decreasing the number of broadcast domains, thus increasing their

size.

F. VLANs make it easier for IT staff to configure new logical groups, because the VLANs all belong to the

same broadcast domain.

G. Port-based VLANs increase switch-port use efficiency, thanks to 802.1Q trunks.

Correct Answer: ACD

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 195

Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? (Choose three.)

A. Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share VLAN information.

B. Establishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains.

C. Switches that are configured with VLANs make forwarding decisions based on both Layer 2 and Layer 3

address information.

D. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.

E. In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will contain one

root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast domain will have

only one root port.

F. If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the address.

Correct Answer: BDE

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 196

Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two.)

A. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control

information.

B. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment.

C. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host

addresses and protocol-related control information.

D. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a segment.

E. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.

Correct Answer: AD

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 197

Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)

A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.

B. A modem terminates a digital local loop.

C. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.

D. A modem terminates an analog local loop.

E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device.

F. A router is commonly considered a DCE device.

Correct Answer: ADE

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 198

Which interface counter can you use to diagnose a duplex mismatch problem?

A. no carrier

B. late collisions

C. giants

D. CRC errors

E. deferred

F. runts

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 199

Which feature can you implement to reserve bandwidth for VoIP calls across the call path?

A. PQ

B. CBWFQ

C. round robin

D. RSVP

Correct Answer: D

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 200

When an interface is configured with PortFast BPDU guard, how does the interface respond when it receives

a BPDU?

A. It continues operating normally.

B. It goes into a down/down state.

C. It becomes the root bridge for the configured VLAN.

D. It goes into an errdisable state.

Correct Answer: D

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 201

What are three characteristics of the TCP protocol? (Choose three.)

A. It uses a single SYN-ACK message to establish a connection.

B. The connection is established before data is transmitted.

C. It ensures that all data is transmitted and received by the remote device.

D. It supports significantly higher transmission speeds than UDP.

E. It requires applications to determine when data packets must be retransmitted.

F. It uses separate SYN and ACK messages to establish a connection.

Correct Answer: BCF

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 202

Which command can you enter to determine whether serial interface 0/2/0 has been configured using HDLC

encapsulation?

A. router#show platform

B. router#show interfaces Serial 0/2/0

C. router#show ip interface s0/2/0

D. router#show ip interface brief

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 203

Which two statements about IPv4 multicast traffic are true? (Choose two.)

A. It burdens the source host without affecting remote hosts.

B. It uses a minimum amount of network bandwidth.

C. It is bandwidth-intensive.

D. It simultaneously delivers multiple streams of data.

E. It is the most efficient way to deliver data to multiple receivers.

Correct Answer: BE

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 204

What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose two.)

A. They are routed the same as public IP addresses.

B. They are less costly than public IP addresses.

C. They can be assigned to devices without Internet connections.

D. They eliminate the necessity for NAT policies.

E. They eliminate duplicate IP conflicts.

Correct Answer: BC

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 205

What is the authoritative source for an address lookup?

A. a recursive DNS search

B. the operating system cache

C. the ISP local cache

D. the browser cache

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 206

Which command can you enter to verify that a BGP connection to a remote device is established?

A. show ip bgp summary

B. show ip community-list

C. show ip bgp paths

D. show ip route

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 207

During which phase of PPPoE is PPP authentication performed?

A. the PPP Session phase

B. Phase 2

C. the Active Discovery phase

D. the Authentication phase

E. Phase 1

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 208

Which three circumstances can cause a GRE tunnel to be in an up/down state? (Choose three.)

A. The tunnel interface IP address is misconfigured.

B. The tunnel interface is down.

C. A valid route to the destination address is missing from the routing table.

D. The tunnel address is routed through the tunnel itself.

E. The ISP is blocking the traffic.

F. An ACL is blocking the outbound traffic.

Correct Answer: BCD

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 209

Which two statements about using leased lines for your WAN infrastructure are true? (Choose two.)

A. Leased lines provide inexpensive WAN access.

B. Leased lines with sufficient bandwidth can avoid latency between endpoints.

C. Leased lines require little installation and maintenance expertise.

D. Leased lines provide highly flexible bandwidth scaling.

E. Multiple leased lines can share a router interface.

F. Leased lines support up to T1 link speeds.

Correct Answer: CD

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 210

Which two statements about wireless LAN controllers are true? (Choose two.)

A. They can simplify the management and deployment of wireless LANs.

B. They rely on external firewalls for WLAN security.

C. They are best suited to smaller wireless networks.

D. They must be configured through a GUI over HTTP or HTTPS.

E. They can manage mobility policies at a systemwide level.

Correct Answer: AE

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 211

Which two statements about northbound and southbound APIs are true? (Choose two.)

A. Only southbound APIs allow program control of the network.

B. Only northbound APIs allow program control of the network.

C. Only southbound API interfaces use a Service Abstraction Layer.

D. Only northbound API interfaces use a Service Abstraction Layer.

E. Both northbound and southbound API interfaces use a Service Abstraction Layer.

F. Both northbound and southbound APIs allow program control of the network.

Correct Answer: BC

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 212

Which command can you enter to set the default route for all traffic to an interface?

A. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 GigabitEthernet0/1

B. router(config-router)#default-information originate always

C. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 GigabitEthernet0/1

D. route(config-router)#default-information originate

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 213

Which WAN topology is most appropriate for a centrally located server farm with several satellite branches?

A. star

B. hub and spoke

C. point-to-point

D. full mesh

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 214

Which function allows EIGRP peers to receive notice of implementing topology changes?

A. successors

B. advertised changes

C. goodbye messages

D. expiration of the hold timer

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 215

If you configure syslog messages without specifying the logging trap level, which log messages will the router

send?

A. informational messages only

B. warning and error conditions only

C. normal but significant conditions only

D. error conditions only

E. all levels except debugging

Correct Answer: E

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 216

Which three options are benefits of using TACACS+ on a device? (Choose three)

A. It ensures that user activity is untraceable.

B. It provides a secure accounting facility on the device.

C. device-administration packets are encrypted in their entirely.

D. It allows the user to remotely access devices from other vendors.

E. It allows the users to be authenticated against a remote server.

F. It supports access-level authorization for commands.

Correct Answer: CEF

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 217

What layer of the OSI Model is included in TCP/IP Model's INTERNET layer?

A. Application

B. Session

C. Data Link

D. Presentation

E. Network

Correct Answer: E

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 218

Which two of these are characteristics of the 802.1Q protocol? (Choose two.)

A. It is used exclusively for tagging VLAN frames and does not address network reconvergence following

switched network topology changes.

B. It modifies the 802.3 frame header, and thus requires that the FCS be recomputed.

C. It is a Layer 2 messaging protocol which maintains VLAN configurations across networks.

D. It includes an 8-bit field which specifies the priority of a frame.

E. It is a trunking protocol capable of carrying untagged frames.

Correct Answer: BE

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 219

Which two features can dynamically assign IPv6 addresses? (Choose two.)

A. IPv6 stateless autoconfiguration

B. DHCP

C. NHRP

D. IPv6 stateful autoconfiguration

E. ISATAP tunneling

Correct Answer: AB

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 220

A security administrator wants to profile endpoints and gain visibility into attempted authentications. Which

802.1x mode allows these actions?

A. Monitor mode

B. High-Security mode

C. Low-impact mode

D. Closed mode

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 221

How to verify strong and secured SSH connection?

A. ssh -v 1 -l admin 10.1.1.1

B. ssh -v 2 -l admin 10.1.1.1

C. ssh -l admin 10.1.1.1

D. ssh –v 2 admin 10.1.1.1

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 222

Which statement about RADIUS security is true?

A. It supports EAP authentication for connecting to wireless networks.

B. It provides encrypted multiprotocol support.

C. Device-administration packets are encrypted in their entirety.

D. It ensures that user activity is fully anonymous.

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 223

If you are configuring syslog messages specifying ‘logging trap warning’, which log messages will the router

send?

A. 0-4

B. 0-5

C. 0-2

D. 0-6

E. 0-1

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 224

What is the correct command for floating static ipv6 route?

A. ipv6 route 2001:DB8::/32 serial 2/0 201

B. ipv6 route 2001:DB8::/32 serial 2/0 1

C. N/A

D. N/A

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 225

What is true about Ethernet? (Choose Two.)

A. 802.2 Protocol

B. 802.3 Protocol

C. 10BaseT half duplex

D. CSMA/CD Stops transmitting when congestion occurs

E. CSMA/CA Stops transmitting when congestion occurs

Correct Answer: BD

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 226

What IP SLA ICMP Echo measures?

A. Packet loss

B. Congestion

C. Hop-by-hop “something”

D. -ANOTHER OPTION

E. -ANOTHER OPTION

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 227

What are types of IPv6 static routes? (Choose Three.)

A. Recursive routes

B. Directly connected routes

C. Fully specified routes

D. Advertised routes

E. Virtual links

F. Redistributed routes

Correct Answer: ABC

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 228

How to configure RIPv2? (Choose Two.)

A. Enable RIP

B. Connect RIP to WAN interface

C. Enable no auto-summary

D. Enable authentication

E. -ANOTHER OPTION

Correct Answer: AC

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 229

What is the status of port-channel if LACP is misconfigured?

A. Forwarding

B. Enabled

C. Disabled

D. Errdisabled

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 230

What is true about DTP? (Choose Three.)

A. Layer 2 protocol

B. Layer 3 protocol

C. Proprietary protocol

D. enabled by default

E. disabled by default

Correct Answer: ACD

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 231

How to create a trunk port and allow VLAN 20? (Choose Three.)

A. switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q

B. switchport mode trunk

C. switchport trunk allowed vlan 20

D. switchport trunk native vlan 20

E. -ANOTHER OPTION

Correct Answer: ABC

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 232

What 8-bit field exists in IP packet for QoS?

A. Tos Field

B. DSCP

C. IP Precedence

D. Cos

E. -ANOTHER OPTION

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 233

What feature uses a random time to re-sent a frame?

A. CSMA/CA

B. -ANOTHER OPTIONC.

-ANOTHER OPTIOND.

CSMA/CD

Correct Answer: D

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 234

Which mode is compatible with Trunk, Access, and desirable ports?

A. Trunk Ports

B. Access Ports

C. Dynamic Auto

D. Dynamic Desirable

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 235

If you configure syslog messages without specifying the logging trap level, which log messages will the router

send?

A. 0-4

B. 0-5

C. 0-2

D. 0-6

E. 0-1

Correct Answer: D

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 236

Which command can you execute to set the user inactivity timer to 10 seconds?

A. SW1(config-line)#exec-timeout 0 10

B. SW1(config-line)#exec-timeout 10

C. SW1(config-line)#absolute-timeout 0 10

D. SW1(config-line)#absolute-timeout 10

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 237

Which standards-based First Hop Redundancy Protocol is a Cisco supported alternative to Hot Standby

Router Protocol?

A. VRRP

B. GLBP

C. TFTP

D. DHCP

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 238

Two hosts are attached to a switch with the default configuration. Which statement about the configuration is

true?

A. IP routing must be enabled to allow the two hosts to communicate.

B. The two hosts are in the same broadcast domain.

C. The switch must be configured with a VLAN to allow the two hosts to communicate

D. Port security prevents the hosts from connecting to the switch.

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 239

If there are 3 hosts connected in one port of a switch and two other hosts connected in another port, how may

collision domains are present on the router?

A. 5

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 240

What are three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address? (Choose three.)

A. an interface ID that is used to identify the local host on the network.

B. an interface ID that is used to identify the local network for a particular host.

C. a subnet ID that is used to identify networks inside of the local enterprise site

D. a global routing prefix that is used to identify the network portion of the address that has been provided by

an ISP

E. a global routing prefix that is used to identify the portion of the network address provided by a local

administrator

Correct Answer: ACD

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 241

You have been asked to come up with a subnet mask that will allow all three web servers to be on the same

network while providing the maximum number of subnets. Which network address and subnet mask meet this

requirement?

A. 192.168.252.0 255.255.255.252

B. 192.168.252.8 255.255.255.248

C. 192.168.252.8 255.255.255.252

D. 192.168.252.16 255.255.255.240

E. 192.168.252.16 255.255.255.252

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 242

What parameter can be different on ports within an EtherChannel?

A. speed

B. DTP negotiation settings

C. trunk encapsulation

D. duplex

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 243

Which two statements about IPv6 router advertisement messages are true? (Choose two.)

A. They use ICMPv6 type 134.

B. The advertised prefix length must be 64 bits.

C. The advertised prefix length must be 48 bits.

D. They are sourced from the configured IPv6 interface address.

E. Their destination is always the link-local address of the neighboring node.

Correct Answer: AB

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 244

Which spanning-tree protocol rides on top of another spanning-tree protocol?

A. MSTP

B. RSTP

C. PVST+

D. Mono Spanning Tree

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 245

A network administrator needs to configure port security on a switch. Which two statements are true? (Choose

two.)

A. The network administrator can apply port security to dynamic access ports.

B. The network administrator can apply port security to EtherChannels.

C. The sticky learning feature allows the addition of dynamically learned addresses to the running

configuration.

D. When dynamic MAC address learning is enabled on an interface, the switch can learn new addresses, up

to the maximum defined.

E. The network administrator can configure static secure or sticky secure MAC addresses in the voice VLAN

Correct Answer: CD

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 246

Which switching method duplicates the first six bytes of a frame before making a switching decision?

A. fragment-free switching

B. store-and-forward switching

C. cut-through switching

D. ASIC switching

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 247

Which logging command can enable administrators to correlate syslog messages with millisecond precision?

A. no logging console

B. logging buffered 4

C. no logging monitor

D. service timestamps log datetime mscec

E. logging host 10.2.0.21

Correct Answer: D

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 248

Which three statements about link-state routing are true? (Choose three.)

A. OSPF is a link-state protocol.

B. Updates are sent to a broadcast address.

C. It uses split horizon.

D. Routes are updated when a change in topology occurs.

E. RIP is a link-state protocol.

F. Updates are sent to a multicast address by default.

Correct Answer: ADF

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 249

Which command can you enter to determine whether a switch is operating in trunking mode?

A. show ip interface brief

B. show vlan

C. show interfaces

D. show interface switchport

Correct Answer: D

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 250

Which command can you enter to view the ports that are assigned to VLAN 20?

A. Switch#show ip interface vlan 20

B. Switch#show vlan id 20

C. Switch#show ip interface brief

D. Switch#show interface vlan 20

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 251

In which two formats can the IPv6 address fd15:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B be written? (Choose

two.)

A. fd15:0db8:0000:0000:700:3:400F:527B

B. fd15::db8::700:3:400F:527B

C. fd15:db8:0::700:3:4F:527B

D. fd15:0db8::7:3:4F:527B

E. fd15:db8::700:3:400F:572B

Correct Answer: AE

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 252

Which function of the IP SLAs ICMP jitter operation can you use to determine whether a VoIP issue is caused

by excessive end-to-end time?

A. packet loss

B. jitter

C. successive packet loss

D. round-trip time latency

Correct Answer: D

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 253

Refer to the exhibit.

Which of these statements correctly describes the state of the switch once the boot process has been

completed?

A. A. The switch will need a different IOS code in order to support VLANs and STР.

B. Remote access management of this switch will not be possible without configuration change.

C. As FastEthernet0/12 will be the last to come up, it will be blocked by STP.

D. More VLANs will need to be created for this switch.

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 254

Refer to the exhibit.

The network administrator normally establishes a Telnet session with the switch from host A. However, host A

is unavailable. The administrator's attempt to telnet to the switch from host В fails, but pings to the other two

hosts are successful. What is the issue?

A. The switch interfaces need the appropriate IP addresses assigned.

B. Host В and the switch need to be in the same subnet.

C. The switch needs an appropriate default gateway assigned.

D. The switch interface connected to the router is down.

E. Host В needs to be assigned an IP address in VLAN 1.

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 255

Which condition does the err-disabled status indicate on an Ethernet interface?

A. There is a duplex mismatch.

B. The device at the other end of the connection is powered off.

C. The serial interface is disabled.

D. The interface is configured with the shutdown command.

E. Port security has disabled the interface.

F. The interface is fully functioning.

Correct Answer: E

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 256

Which two correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two.)

A. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.

B. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment.

C. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a segment.

D. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host

addresses and protocol-related control information.

E. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control

information.

Correct Answer: CE

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 257

Refer to the exhibit

All of the routers in the network are configured with the ip subnet-zero command. Which network addresses

should be used for Link A and Network A? (Choose two.)

A. Link A – 172.16.3.0/30

B. Link A – 172.16.3.112/30

C. Network A – 172.16.3.48/26

D. Network A – 172.16.3.128/25

E. Link A – 172.16.3.40/30

F. Network A – 172.16.3.192/26

Correct Answer: AD

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 258

Which type of device can be replaced by the use of subinterfaces for VLAN routing

A. Layer 2 bridge

B. Layer 2 switch

C. Layer 3 switch

D. router

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 259

Which statement about LLDP is true?

A. It is a Cisco proprietary protocol.

B. It is configured in global configuration mode.

C. The LLDP update frequency is a fixed value.

D. It runs over the transport layer.

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 260

If the primary root bridge experiences a power loss, which switch takes over?

A. switch 0040.0ВС0.90C5

B. switch 00E0.F90B.6BE3

C. switch 0004.9A1A.C182

D. switch 00E0.F726.3DC6

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 261

A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP problem on a router and needs to confirm the IP

addresses of the devices with which the router has established adjacency. The retransmit interval and the

queue counts for the adjacent routers also need to be checked. What command will display the required

information?

A. Router# show ip eigrp neighbors

B. Router# show ip eigrp interfaces

C. Router# show ip eigrp adjacency

D. Router# show ip eigrp topology

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 262

Which three statements about IPv6 prefixes are true? (Choose three.)

A. FEC0::/10 is used for IPv6 broadcast.

B. FC00::/7 is used in private networks.

C. FE80::/8 is used for link-local unicast.

D. FE80::/10 is used for link-local unicast.

E. 2001::1/127 is used for loopback addresses.

F. FF00::/8 is used for IPv6 multicast.

Correct Answer: BDF

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 263

Which command can you enter to display duplicate IP addresses that the DHCP server assigns?

A. show ip dhcp conflict 10.0.2.12

B. show ip dhcp database 10.0.2.12

C. show ip dhcp server statistics

D. show ip dhcp binding 10.0.2.12

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 264

Refer to the topology shown in the exhibit.

Which three ports will be STP designated ports if all the links are operating at the same bandwidth? (Choose

three.)

A. Switch B - Fа0/0

B. Switch A - Fa0/1

C. Switch В - Fa0/l

D. Switch С - Fа0/1

E. Switch A - Fa0/0

F. Switch С - Fa0/0

Correct Answer: ABC

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 265

Refer to the exhibit

The network administrator cannot connect to Switch 1 over a Telnet session, although the hosts attached to

Switch1 can ping the interface Fa0/0 of the router. Given the information in the graphic and assuming that the

router and Switch2 are configured properly, which of the following commands should be issued on Switch1 to

correct this problem?

A. Switch1(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.24.1

B. Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1

Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

C. Switch1(config)# line con0

Switch1(config-line)# password cisco

Switch1(config-line)# login

D. Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1

Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.24.3 255.255.255.0

E. Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1

Switch1(config-if)# duplex full

Switch1(confiq-if)# speed 100

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 266

Refer to the exhibit.

Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as being configured to run RSTP.

No other configuration changes have been made. Which three of these show the correct RSTP port roles for

the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three.)

A. SwitchD. Gi0/2, root

B. SwitchA, Fa0/2, designated

C. SwitchB, Gi0/l, designated

D. SwitchA, Fa0/l, root

E. SwitchB, Gi0/2, root

F. SwitchC, Fa0/2, root

Correct Answer: ABD

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 267

Which feature builds a FIB and an adjacency table to expedite packet forwarding?

A. cut through

B. fast switching

C. process switching

D. Cisco Express Forwarding

Correct Answer: D

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 268

Which command can you enter to verify that a 128-bit address is live and responding?

A. traceroute

B. telnet

C. ping

D. show ipv6

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 269

What are two reasons that duplex mismatches can be difficult to diagnose? (Choose two.)

A. The interface displays a connected (up/up) state even when the duplex settings are mismatched.

B. 1-Gbps interfaces are full-duplex by default.

C. Full-duplex interfaces use CSMA/CD logic, so mismatches may be disguised by collisions.

D. The symptoms of a duplex mismatch may be intermittent.

E. Autonegotiation is disabled.

Correct Answer: AD

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 270

Which condition indicates that service password-encryption is enabled?

A. The local username password is in clear text in the configuration.

B. The enable secret is in clear text in the configuration.

C. The local username password is encrypted in the configuration.

D. The enable secret is encrypted in the configuration.

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 271

Which protocol advertises a virtual IP address to facilitate transparent failover of a Cisco routing device?

A. FHRP

B. DHCP

C. RSMLT

D. ESRP

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 272

What is the correct routing match to reach 172.16.1.5/32?

A. 172.16.1.0/26

B. 172.16.1.0/25

C. 172.16.1.0/24

D. the default route

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 273

Which layer in the OSI reference model is responsible for determining the availability of the receiving program

and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication?

A. transport

B. network

C. presentation

D. session

E. application

Correct Answer: E

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 274

What is the purpose of the POST operation on a router?

A. determine whether additional hardware has been added

B. locate an IOS image for booting

C. enable a TFTP server

D. set the configuration register

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 275

Which protocol is the Cisco proprietary implementation of FHRP?

A. HSRP

B. VRRP

C. GLBP

D. CARP

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 276

Which three characteristics are representative of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose three.)

A. provides common view of entire topology

B. exchanges routing tables with neighbors

C. calculates shortest path

D. utilizes event-triggered updates

E. utilizes frequent periodic updates

Correct Answer: ACD

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 277

Which part of the PPPoE server configuration contains the information used to assign an IP address to a

PPPoE client?

A. virtual-template interface

B. DHCP

C. dialer interface

D. AAA authentication

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 278

Select and Place:

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 279

Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.)

A. RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure.

B. RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles.

C. RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding.

D. RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does.

E. RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence.

F. RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links

Correct Answer: ABD

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 280

What are two benefits of using NAT? (Choose two.)

A. NAT facilitates end-to-end communication when IPsec is enabled.

B. NAT eliminates the need to re-address all hosts that require external access.

C. NAT conserves addresses through host MAC-level multiplexing.

D. Dynamic NAT facilitates connections from the outside of the network.

E. NAT accelerates the routing process because no modifications are made on the packets.

F. NAT protects network security because private networks are not advertised.

Correct Answer: BF

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 281

Which two commands correctly verify whether port security has been configured on port FastEthernet 0/12 on

a switch? (Choose two.)

A. SW1#show port-secure interface FastEthernet 0/12

B. SW1#show switchport port-secure interface FastEthernet 0/12

C. SW1#show running-config

D. SW1#show port-security interface FastEthernet 0/12

E. SW1#show switchport port-security interface FastEthernet 0/12

Correct Answer: CD

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 282

Refer to the exhibit. Given this output for SwitchC, what should the network administrator's next action be?

A. Check the trunk encapsulation mode for SwitchC's fa0/1 port.

B. Check the duplex mode for SwitchC's fa0/1 port.

C. Check the duplex mode for SwitchA's fa0/2 port.

D. Check the trunk encapsulation mode for SwitchA's fa0/2 port

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 283

Which statement is correct regarding the operation of DHCP?

A. A DHCP client uses a ping to detect address conflicts.

B. A DHCP server uses a gratuitous ARP to detect DHCP clients.

C. A DHCP client uses a gratuitous ARP to detect a DHCP server.

D. If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool and an administrator must resolve

the conflict.

E. If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool for an amount of time configurable

by the administrator.

F. If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool and will not be reused until the

server is rebooted.

Correct Answer: D

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 284

Which two statements about using the CHAP authentication mechanism in a PPP link are true? (Choose two.)

A. CHAP uses a two-way handshake.

B. CHAP uses a three-way handshake.

C. CHAP authentication periodically occurs after link establishment.

D. CHAP authentication passwords are sent in plaintext.

E. CHAP authentication is performed only upon link establishment.

F. CHAP has no protection from playback attacks.

Correct Answer: BC

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 285

Refer to the exhibit. Switch port FastEthernet 0/24 on ALSwitch1 will be used to create an IEEE 802.1Qcompliant

trunk to another switch. Based on the output shown, what is the reason the trunk does not form,

even though the proper cabling has been attached?

A. VLANs have not been created yet.

B. An IP address must be configured for the port.

C. The port is currently configured for access mode.

D. The correct encapsulation type has not been configured.

E. The no shutdown command has not been entered for the port.

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 286

Refer to the exhibit. A junior network administrator was given the task of configuring port security on SwitchA

to allow only PC_A to access the switched network through port fa0/1. If any other device is detected, the port

is to drop frames from this device. The administrator configured the interface and tested it with successful

pings from PC_A to RouterA, and then observes the output from these two show commands. Which two of

these changes are necessary for SwitchA to meet the requirements? (Choose two.)

A. Port security needs to be globally enabled.

B. Port security needs to be enabled on the interface.

C. Port security needs to be configured to shut down the interface in the event of a violation.

D. Port security needs to be configured to allow only one learned MAC address.

E. Port security interface counters need to be cleared before using the show command.

F. The port security configuration needs to be saved to NVRAM before it can become active.

Correct Answer: BD

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 287

Which three statements about static routing are true? (Choose three.)

A. It uses consistent route determination.

B. It is best used for small-scale deployments.

C. Routing is disrupted when links fail.

D. It requires more resources than other routing methods.

E. It is best used for large-scale deployments.

F. Routers can use update messages to reroute when links fail.

Correct Answer: ABC

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 288

What are the address that will show at the show ip route if we configure the above statements? (Choose

Three.)

A. 10.0.0.0

B. 10.4.3.0

C. 172.15.4.0

D. 172.15.0.0

E. 192.168.4.0

F. 192.168.0.0

Correct Answer: ADE

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 289

Which feature facilitate the tagging of a specific VLAN?

A. Routing

B. Hairpinning

C. Encapsulation

D. Switching

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 290

What does split horizon prevent?

A. routing loops, link state

B. routing loops, distance vector

C. switching loops, STP

D. switching loops, VTP

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 291

Which value to use in HSRP protocol election process?

A. interface

B. virtual IP address

C. priority

D. router ID

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 292

Which of the following is needed to be enable back the role of active in HSRP?

A. prempt

B. priority

C. other options

D. other options

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 293

Which command is used to show the interface status of a router?

A. show interface status

B. show ip interface brief

C. show ip route

D. show interface

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 294

Which of the following privilege level is the most secured?

A. Level 0

B. Level 1

C. Level 15

D. Level 16

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 295

Which IPV6 feature is supported in IPV4 but is not commonly used?

A. unicast

B. multicast

C. anycast

D. broadcast

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 296

Which two statements are true about IPv6 Unique Local Addresses? (Choose Two.)

A. It is the counterpart of IPv4 private addresses

B. It uses FC00::/7 as prefix

C. wrong

D. wrong

Correct Answer: AB

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 297

Which range represents the standard access list?

A. 99

B. 150

C. 299

D. 2000

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 298

What to do when the router password was forgotten?

A. use default password cisco to reset

B. access router physically

C. use ssl/vpn

D. Type confreg 0x2142 at the rommon 1

Correct Answer: D

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 299

What is true about Cisco Discovery Protocol?

A. it discovers the routers, switches and gateways.

B. it is network layer protocol

C. it is physical and data link layer protocol

D. it is proprietary protocol

Correct Answer: D

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 300

Which of the following encrypts the traffic on a leased line?

A. telnet

B. ssh

C. vtp

D. vpn

E. dmvpn

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 301

How do you configure a hostname?

A. Router(config)#hostname R1

B. Router#hostname R1

C. Router(config)#host name R1

D. Router>hostname R1

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 302

How do you maintain security in multiple websites?

A. vpn

B. dmvpn

C. other

D. other

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 303

Refer to the exhibit. Switch-1 needs to send data to a host with a MAC address of 00b0.d056.efa4. What will

Switch-1 do with this data?

A. Switch-1 will drop the data because it does not have an entry for that MAC address.

B. Switch-1 will flood the data out all of its ports except the port from which the data originated.

C. Switch-1 will send an ARP request out all its ports except the port from which the data originated.

D. Switch-1 will forward the data to its default gateway.

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 304

interface fa0/0

ip address x.x.x.33 255.255.255.224

router bgp XXX

neighbor x.x.x.x remote as x.x.x.x

You need to advertise the network of Int fa0/0.

A. x.x.x.32 mask 255.255.255.224

B. x.x.x.32 255.255.255.224

C. x.x.x.32 mask 0.0.0.31=

D. x.x.x.33 mask 255.255.255.224

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 305

What routing protocol use first-hand information?

A. link-state

B. distance-vector

C. path-vector

D. other

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 306

What field is consist of 6 bytes in the field identification frame in IEEE 802.1Q?

A. SA

B. DA

C. FCS

D. other

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 307

What is new in HSRPv2?

A. prempt

B. a greater number in hsrp group field

C. other

D. other

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 308

What's are true about MPLS?

A. It use a label to separete traffic from several costumer

B. It use IPv4 IPv6

C. other

D. other

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 309

A network engineer wants to allow a temporary entry for a remote user with a specific username and password

so that the user can access the entire network over the internet. Which ACL can be used?

A. reflexive

B. extended

C. standard

D. dynamic

Correct Answer: D

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 310

Which command is necessary to permit SSH or Telnet access to a cisco switch that is otherwise configured

for these vty line protocols?

A. transport type all

B. transport output all

C. transport preferred all

D. transport input all

Correct Answer: D

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 311

What should be part of a comprehensive network security plan?

A. Allow users to develop their own approach to network security

B. Physically secure network equipment from potential access by unauthorized individuals

C. Encourage users to use personal information in their passwords to minimize the likelihood of passwords

being forgotten

D. Delay deployment of software patches and updates until their effect on end-user equipment is well known

and widely reported

E. Minimize network overhead by deactivating automatic antivirus client updates

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 312

Which two Cisco IOS commands, used in troubleshooting, can enable debug output to a remote location?

(Choose two.)

A. no logging console

B. logging host ip-address

C. terminal monitor

D. show logging | redirect flashioutput.txt

E. snmp-server enable traps syslog

Correct Answer: BC

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 313

Which component of the Cisco SDN solution serves as the centralized management system?

A. Cisco OpenDaylight

B. Cisco ACI

C. Cisco APIC

D. Cisco IWAN

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 314

What command can you enter in config mode to create DHCP pool?

A. ip dhcp pool DHCP_pool

B. ip dhcp exclude -add

C. ip dhcp conflict logging

D. service dhcp

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 315

Which utility can you use to determine whether a switch can send echo requests and replies?

A. ping

B. traceroute

C. ssh

D. telnet

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ios-nx-os-software/ios-software-releases-121-mainline/12778-

pingtraceroute.html

QUESTION 316

What is the two benefits of DHCP snooping? (Choose two.)

A. static reservation

B. DHCP reservation

C. prevent DHCP rouge server

D. prevent untrusted host and servers to connect

Correct Answer: CD

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 317

What are the three major components of cisco network virtualization? (Choose Three.)

A. network access control

B. path isolation

C. virtual network services

D. policy enforcement

Correct Answer: ABC

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 318

Which feature is config by setting a variance that is at least 2 times the metric?

A. unequal cost load balancing

B. path selection

C. equal cost load balancing

D. path count

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 319

Standard industrialized protocol of etherchannel?

A. LACP

B. PAGP

C. PRP

D. REP

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 320

Two features of the extended ping command? (Choose two.)

A. It can send a specific number of packet

B. It can send packet from specified interface of IP address

C. It can resolve the destination host name

D. It can ping multiple host at the same time

Correct Answer: AB

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 321

What command is used to configure a switch as authoritative NTP server?

A. ntp master 3

B. ntp peer IP

C. ntp server IP

D. ntp source IP

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 322

Two statements about syslog loging? (Choose Two)

A. Syslog logging is disabled by default

B. Messages are stored in the internal memory of device

C. Messages can be erased when device reboots

D. Messages are stored external to the device

E. other

F. other

Correct Answer: BC

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 323

How to enable vlans automatically across multiple switches?

A. Configure VLAN

B. Confiture NTP

C. Configure each VLAN

D. Configure VTP

Correct Answer: D

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 324

Which password types are encrypted?

A. SSH

B. Telnet

C. enable secret

D. enable password

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 325

What is the benefit of point-to-point leased line? (Choose two.)

A. Low cost

B. Full-mesh capability

C. Flexibillity of design

D. Simply configuration

Correct Answer: CD

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 326

What is the binary pattern of unique ipv6 unique local address?

A. 00000000

B. 11111100

C. 11111111

D. 11111101

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 327

Which statemnet about ACLs is true?

A. An ACL have must at least one permit action, else it just blocks all traffic.

B. ACLs go bottom-up through the entries looking for a match

C. An ACL has a an implicit permit at the end of ACL.

D. ACLs will check the packet against all entries looking for a match.

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 328

What is the cause of the Syslog output messages?

A. The EIGRP neighbor on Fa0/1 went down due to a failed link.

B. The EIGRP neighbor connected to Fa0/1 is participating in a different EIGRP process, causing the

adjacency to go down.

C. A shut command was executed on interface Fa0/1, causing the EIGRP adjacency to go down.

D. Interface Fa0/1 has become error disabled, causing the EIGRP adjacency to go down.

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 329

What are contained in layer 2 ethernet frame? (Choose Three.)

A. Preamble

B. TTL

C. Type/length

D. Frame check sequence

E. version

F. others

Correct Answer: ACD

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 330

Describe the best way to troubleshoot and isolate a network problem?

A. Create an action plan

B. Implement an action plan

C. Gather the facts

D. Change on variable at a time

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 331

Under normal operations, cisco recommends that you configure switch ports on which vlan?

A. on the default vlan

B. on the management vlan

C. on the native vlan

D. on any vlan except the default vlan

Correct Answer: D

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/switches/catalyst-6500-series-switches/24330-185.html

QUESTION 332

Which DTP switchport mode allow the port to create a trunk port if the the port is in trunk, dynamic auto and

dynamic desirable mode?

A. Dynamic Auto

B. Dynamic Desirable

C. Access

D. Trunk

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

http://bradhedlund.com/2007/11/27/switchport-configurations-explained/

QUESTION 333

In which byte of an IP packet can traffic be marked?

A. the QoS byte

B. the CoS byte

C. the ToS byte

D. the DSCP byte

Correct Answer: D

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 334

Which command can you enter to route all traffic that is destined to 192.168.0.0/20 to a specific interface?

A. ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.240.0 gi 0/1

B. ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0 gi 0/1

C. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 gi 0/1

D. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 gi 0/1

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 335

Which two protocol can detect native vlan mismatch errors? (Choose two.)

A. CDP

B. VTP

C. DTP

D. STP

E. PAGP

Correct Answer: AD

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 336

Which three options are switchport config that can always avoid duplex mismatch error between the switches?

(Choose Three.)

A. set both side on auto-negotation.

B. set both sides on half-duplex

C. set one side auto and other side half-duplex

D. set both side of connection to full-duplex

E. set one side auto and other side on full-duplex

F. set one side full-duplex and other side half-duplex

Correct Answer: ABD

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

http://www.pathsolutions.com/network-enemy-1-duplex-mismatch/

QUESTION 337

What are two benefits of Private IPv4 Addresses? (Choose two.)

A. they can be implemented without requiring admin to coordinate with IANA

B. they are managed by IANA

C. increase the flexibility of network design

D. provide network isloation from the internet

E. they are routable over internet

Correct Answer: AD

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

http://smallbusiness.chron.com/advantages-disadvantages-using-private-ip-address-space-46424.html

QUESTION 338

How many bits represent network id in a IPv6 address?

A. 32

B. 48

C. 64

D. 128

Correct Answer: D

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

http://networkengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/30836/calculate-networking-bits-for-ipv664 bits for

Nwtwork ID and 64 bits for Interface ID64+64=128

QUESTION 339

An interface which we have to determine from the routing the route learned by which routing protocol?

A. EIGRP

B. OSPF

C. RIP

D. BGP

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 340

How many usable host are there per subnet if you have the address of 192.168.10.0

with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.240?

A. 4

B. 8

C. 16

D. 14

Correct Answer: D

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 341

What interconnection cable can you use when you use a MDI connection?

A. cut-through

B. straight-through

C. crossover

D. rollover

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 342

Which cisco platform can verify ACLs?

A. Cisco Prime Infrastructure

B. Cisco Wireless LAN Controller

C. Cisco APIC-EM

D. Cisco IOS-XE

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 343

In order to comply with new auditing standards, a security administrator must be able to correlate

system security alert logs directly with the employee who triggers the alert. Which of the following

should the security administrator implement in order to meet this requirement?

A. Access control lists on file servers

B. Elimination of shared accounts

C. Group-based privileges for accounts

D. Periodic user account access reviews

Correct Answer: D

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 344

When you deploy multilink PPP on your network, where must you configure the group IP Address on

each device?

A. In the global config

B. Under serial interface

C. Under the routing protocol

D. Under the multilink interface

Correct Answer: D

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 345

If you want multiple hosts on a network, where do you configure the setting?

A. in the IP protocol

B. in the multicast interface

C. in the serial interface

D. in the global configuration

Correct Answer: A

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 346

Which option is the benefit of implementing an intelligent DNS for a cloud computing solution?

A. It reduces the need for a backup data center.

B. It can redirect user requests to locations that are using fewer network resources.

C. It enables the ISP to maintain DNS records automatically.

D. It eliminates the need for a GSS.

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 347

Which statement about the IP SLAs ICMP Echo operation is true?

A. The frequency of the operation .s specified in milliseconds.

B. It is used to identify the best source interface from which to send traffic.

C. It is configured in enable mode.

D. It is used to determine the frequency of ICMP packets.

Correct Answer: D

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 348

Which action can change the order of entries in a named access-list?

A. removing an entry

B. opening the access-list in notepad

C. adding an entry

D. resequencing

Correct Answer: D

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 349

How does a router handle an incoming packet whose destination network is missing from the routing

table?

A. it broadcast the packet to each interface on the router

B. it discards the packet

C. it broadcasts the packet to each network on the router

D. it routes the packet to the default

Correct Answer: B

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 350

Which two components are used to identify a neighbor in a BGP configuration? (Choose two.)

A. autonomous system number

B. version number

C. router ID

D. subnet mask

E. IP address

Correct Answer: AE

Section: (none)

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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